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NASSCOM Technical Test - 2014

Posted on :15-02-2016
NASSCOM Placement paper - 2014:-


Q1. Which tool is best used to monitor the speed of moving vehicles in a city? 

a. Pulsed radar 
b. Mono pulse radar 
c. Doppler radar 
d. Auto tracking radar 


Q2. If a water tank partially filled with water is being carried on a truck, moving with a constant horizontal acceleration, the level of the liquid will: 

a. Rise on the front side of the tank 
b. Fall on the back side of the tank 
c. Remain the same at both side of the tank 
d. Rise on the back side and fall on the front side 


Q3. A Base band video signal limited to 9MHz is transmitted using USB. The vestigial Bandwidth is 2MHz. The Bandwidth of the USB modulated signal is 

a. 9 MHz 
b. 11 MHz 
c. 13 MHz 
d. 20 MHz 


Q4. Fluid energy mill is used for 

a. Ultrafine grinding
b. Cutting 
c. Grinding 
d. Crushing 


Q5. How many zeroes are present in the binary representation of 51 - 5? 

a. 0 
b. 1 
c. 3 
d. 5


Q6. Cellulose pulp is treated with Carbon-di-sulphide and dissolved in caustic soda again. The resultant yarn that is manufactured can be used for 

a. PV fabrics 
b. PC fabrics 
c. PE fabrics 
d. PVC fabrics 


Q7. Facultative pyschrophiles have: 

a. Optimal growth temperature between 200
b. Optimal growth temperature between 00
c. Optimal growth temperature below 50
d. None of the above. 


Q8. A 5 bit ripple counter requires 100 n sec for change of state. The maximum propagation delay of each flip flop is 

a. 20 ns 
b. 10 ns 
c. 50 ns 
d. 5 ns 


Q9. A 4 bit ripple counter uses RS flip flops. Determine the maximum propogation delay of each flip flop, if the clock frequency is 5 MHz 

a. 100 ns 
b. 60 ns 
c. 30 ns 
d. 50 ns 


Q10. Determine which of the following is false with respect to PWM Inverter? 

a. It has very good PF on the AC side 
b. Very wide speed range of operation 
c. Voltage is determined by switching frequency 
d. Closed loop operation is possible 


Q11. Consider the following functions: f(n)= 3 n ? n  ; g(n) = 3 n ? n n log  3 ; h(n) = n! Which of the following is true? 

a. h(n) is O (f(n)) 
b. h(n) is O (g(n)) 
c. f(n) is O (g(n)) 
d. g(n) is not O (f(n)) 


Q12. Determine the input displacement factor if the power factor = 0.6 and distortion factor = 3/u.

a. 0.6 
b. 0.634 
c. 0.628 
d. 0.783 


Q13. In a 16-bit microprocessor, words are stored in two consecutive memory locations. Reading the entire word in a single operation is possible if 

a. the first word is even 
b. the last memory location is odd 
c. the first memory location is odd 
d. the first memory address is even 


Q14. Assertion (A): If a diode is connected close to the SCR in a series resonant inverter, SCR does not turn off at all. 

Reason (R): Diode reduces the reverse voltage of the thyristor. 

a. A and R are true, A is correct explanation 
b. A is true, R is false 
c. A is false 
d. A and R are true, R is not correct explanation 


Q15. Consider the following program 

n = b1b2b3.....bm 
int n, rev; 
rev = 0; 
while (n > 0) { 
rev = rev * 10 + n %10; 
n = n/10; 

Which of the following is true at the end of the i-th iteration? 

a. n = b1b2...bm - i and rev = bm bm - 1...bm - i+1 
b. n= bm - i+1...bm - 1bm and rev = bm - i...b2b1 
c. n= b1b2...bm and rev = bm...b2b1 
d. none of these 


Q16. Brinell hardness number is equal to 

a. P/D- D2-d2
b. 2P/D (D-(D2-d2))
c. 2P/D (D-(D2-d2))
d. 2P/D (D-(D-d))


Q17. Which of the following statement is true? 

a. BJT is current controlled device with a high input impedance and high gain Bandwidth. 
b. FET is a voltage controlled device with high input impedance and low gain Bandwidth. 
c. FET cannot be used for Amplification. 
d. All of the above. 


Q18. Bending moment M and torque T is applied on a shaft. The equivalent torque will be 

a. M + T 
b. 1/2 M 2 + T 2
c.1/2 (M+ M 2 + T 2)
d. M 2 + T 2


Q19. The equilibrium super elevation required to contract the centrifugal force fully is given by: 

a. V2/27.5 R
b. 0.75/127 R
c. V2 /75 R
d. V2 /127 R


Q20. The characteristic equation of a system is S4 + 3S2 + 2S + 1 = 0. The system is 

a. Stable 
b. Un stable 
c. Critically stable 
d. Cannot say 


Q21. Find the odd man out 

a. Chain Stitch 
b. Tricot Stitch 
c. Railway Stitch 
d. Cross Stitch 


Q22. Figure of merit of a Single tone AM receiver using Envelope detector if u = 0.5 is 

a. 0.08 
b. 0.11 
c. 0.25 
d. 1 


Q23. Technically, steel with carbon above 2% is known as 

a. Ferrite 
b. Pearlite 
c. Cementite 
d. Cast Iron


Q24. Choose the odd process out 

a. TIG welding 
b. Thermit welding 
c. Resistance welding 
d. Submerged arc welding 


Q25. The mechanical extra widening required for pavement of width 10.5 m, on a horizontal curve of radius R metre is given by: 

a. 12/2R
b.212/3R
c.12/R
d.312/R


Q26. Select the wrong statement. 

Compared to Pt catalyst, V2O5 catalyst used in contact process for manufacture of H2SO4 because it is 

a. Is immune to poisons 
b. Requires low O2/SO2 to give economic conversion 
c. Requires dilute SO2 input (7-10%) 
d. Requires low initial investments and 5% replacement per year. 


Q27. 10 kilometers of a cotton yarn with 7 RKM is wound up in a spool. 50 centimeters of the same yarn is then tied to the spool on one end and attached to a hook on the other end. 

a. The 50 cm yarn would stretch by 2% 
b. The 50 cm yarn would break under the weight of the spool 
c. The 50 cm yarn would stretch by 7% 
d. The 50 cm yarn would retain its original shape 


Q28. 500 fabric banners using six-colour geometric graphics need to be produced. Which printing procedure would be most quick and accurate? 

a. block 
b. digital 
c. roller 
d. screen 


Q29. The mixture of proteins (K, J, L, M, P) is separated from SDS PAGE. The increasing order of their molecular size is L, M, K, P, J. The electrophoretic mobility in SDS PAGE gel would be in the order (increasing): 

a. KPJML 
b. LMKPJ 
c. JPKML 
d. Same for all 


Q30. Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with frequencies between 

a. 300 MHz to 300 GHz 
b. 50 MHz to 600 MHz 
c. 800 to 900 MHz 
d. 1.8 to 1.95 GHz 


Q31. A program C with 200 integers in the range 0- 50 represents the scores of 200 students. It then prints the frequency of each score above 25. What would be the best way for C to store the frequency? 

a. an array of 25 numbers 
b. an array of 50 numbers 
c. an array of 200 numbers 
d. a dynamically allocated array of 250 numbers 


Q32. Let x, y and z denote the first vertex visited in post-order, in-order and pre-order traversals respectively of a complete binary tree. Which of the following is always true? 

a. x = y 
b. x = z 
c. y = z 
d. None of these 


Q33. In a graph G there are 2n first 3 bits are similar. What are the number of connected components? 

a. 1 
b. 3 
c. 8 
d. 2n-3


Q34. fm/fc is the 

a. upper band frequency 
b. lower band frequency 
c. harmonity ratio 
d. mid band frequency 


Q35. In Guinea pigs, black hair (B) is dominant over white (b), rough coat texture (R) is dominant over smooth (r), and short hair (S) is dominant over long hair (s). A cross between a homozygous black, rough, short-haired Guinea pig and a white, smooth, long-haired one and the F1 offsprings were crossed again. What would be the number of offsprings with the genotype BBR-Ss, if 160 offsprings were born? (Assume that these genes are on separate chromosomes) 

a. 15 
b. 24 
c. 21 
d. 27 


Q36. In calculating the strength of a riveted joint in tearing, shearing and crushing, the 

a. Actual diameter of the rivet is used 
b. Actual diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used 
c. Mean diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used 
d. Smaller of the diameter and hole diameter is used 


Q37. A Mohrs circle reduces to a point when the body is subjected to 

a. pure shear 
b. uni axial stress only 
c. equal and opposite axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear 
d. equal axial stresses on two mutually perpendicular planes, the planes being free of shear 


Q38. A fabric of dimension 50 cm by 30 cm, has a weight of 22500 mg. The density of the fabric is 

a. 50 gsm 
b. 100 gsm 
c. 150 gsm 
d. 200 gsm 


Q39. The four elements making 99% of living system are

a. C, H, O, S 
b. C, H, O, P 
c. C, H, O, N 
d. C, N, O, P 


Q40. In a PCM system, number of bits are increased from n to n + 1. The quantization noise power 

a. increases by 3dB 
b. decreases by 3dB 
c. decreases by 6dB 
d. increases by 6dB


Q41. A sample was inoculated by 2 cell of a bacterium with a generation time of 15 minutes. What would be the number of bacterium after 4 hrs? 

a. 128 
b. 256 
c. 512 
d. 1024 


Q42. In a textile mill, an evaporator concentrates a liquor containing solids of 6% by W/W to produce an output containing 30% by W/W. Calculate evaporation of water per 100kg of feed to the evaporator? 

a. 80Kg 
b. 100Kg 
c. 60Kg 
d. 90Kg 


Q43. Archimedes principle of buoyancy states that when a body is totally or partially immersed in a fluid, it is buoyed up by a force which is equal to: 

a. Weight of the body 
b. Weight of the fluid displaced by the body 
c. Weight of the body and the fluid displaced by the body 
d. Difference of weights of the fluid displaced and that of the body 


Q44. The assumptions made in the derivation of Bernoullis equation are that the flow is 

a. Incompressible, rotational and non-viscous 
b. Incompressible, steady, non-viscous and irrotational 
c. Incompressible, steady and non-viscous 
d. Incompressible, non-viscous and irrotational 


Q45. Consider two channels. 
Channel 1: Bandwidth = 4 MHZ; S

a. Communication in channel 1 is faster than channel 2 
b. Communication in channel 2 is faster than channel 1 
c. Communication in equally fast in both channels 
d. Insufficient data 


  
   






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