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L&T Infotech Verbal Ability 2014

Posted on :01-02-2016
Section 1: 

Verbal Ability (30 questions in 30 minutes):-

Directions for questions 1 to 5: 

Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:

The Great Wall of China Walls and wall building have played a very important role in Chinese culture. These people, from the dim mists of prehistory have been wall-conscious; from the Neolithic period  when ramparts of pounded earth were used - to the Communist Revolution, walls were an essential part of any village. 

Not only towns and villages; the houses and the temples within them were somehow walled, and the houses also had no windows overlooking the street, thus giving the feeling of wandering around a huge maze. The name for city in Chinese (cheng) means wall, and over these walled cities, villages, houses and temples presides the god of walls and mounts, whose duties were, and still are, to protect and be responsible for the welfare of the inhabitants. Thus a great and extremely laborious task such as constructing a wall, which was supposed to run throughout the country, must not have seemed such an absurdity. 

However, it is indeed a common mistake to perceive the Great Wall as a single architectural structure, and it would also be erroneous to assume that it was built during a single dynasty. For the building of the wall spanned the various dynasties, and each of these dynasties somehow contributed to the refurbishing and the construction of a wall, whose foundations had been laid many centuries ago. It was during the fourth and third century B.C. that each warring state started building walls to protect their kingdoms, both against one another and against the northern nomads. Especially three of these states: the Chin, the Chao and the Yen, corresponding respectively to the modern provinces of Shensi, Shanzi and Hopei, over and above building walls that surrounded their kingdoms, also laid the foundations on which Chin Shih Huang Di would build his first continuous Great Wall. The role that the Great Wall played in the growth of Chinese economy was an important one. 

Throughout the centuries many settlements were established along the new border. The garrison troops were instructed to reclaim wasteland and to plant crops on it, roads and canals were built, to mention just a few of the works carried out. All these undertakings greatly helped to increase the countrys trade and cultural exchanges with many remote areas and also with the southern, central and western parts of Asia  the formation of the Silk Route. Builders, garrisons, artisans, farmers and peasants left behind a trail of objects, including inscribed tablets, household articles, and written work, which have become extremely valuable archaeological evidence to the study of defense institutions of the Great Wall and the everyday life of these people who lived and died along the wall.

Q1. Chinese cities resembled a maze

1. because they were walled
2. because the houses has no external windows
3. because the name of the cities means wall
4. because walls have always been important there

Q2. Constructing a wall that ran the length of the country

1. Honoured the god of walls and mounts
2. Was an absurdly laborious task
3. May have made sense within Chinese culture
4. Made the country look like a huge maze

Q3. The Great Wall of China

1. Was built in a single dynasty
2. Was refurbished in the fourth and third centuries BC
3. Used existing foundations
4. Was built by Chin, the Chao and the Yen

Q4. Crops were planted

1. on wasteland
2. to reclaim wasteland
3. on reclaimed wasteland
4. along the canals

Q5. The Great Walls

1. helped build trade only inside China
2. helped build trade in China and abroad
3. helped build trade only abroad
4. helped build trade only to remote areas

Directions for questions 6 to 10: 

For the following questions, find a word that is opposite to the capitalized word:




1. implicit 
2. Constant 
3. Premature 
4. Slight


1. ruthless 
2. Seductive 
3. Contaminated 
4. Coarse


1. full supply 
2. Impunity 
3. Truthfulness 
4. Peculiarity


1. blithe 
2. Incapable 
3. Fragrant 
4. Garrulous

Directions for questions 11 to 15:

Read the following sentences carefully. Decide which answer is the most inappropriate in the sentence.

Q11.Truculent: The truculent stance adopted by both the countries will not further world peace

1. obstinate
2. belligerent
3. pugnacious
4. antagonistic

Q12. Canker: Caste discrimination remains a canker in the society.

1. scourge
2. mystery
3. pestilence
4. blight

Q13. Vindictive: Harboring vindictive thoughts about somebody can obstruct a persons spiritual growth.

1. vengeful
2. villainous
3. rancorous
4. malevolent

Q14. Vex: The opposition party questioned the rationale of discussing the vexed issue every session.

1. contentious
2. contested
3. impertinent
4. problematic

Q15. Boomerang: This strategy may help in the short run, but watch out, it may boomerang in the long run.

1. ricochet
2. recoil
3. fail
4. backfire

Directions for questions 16 to 20:

A sentence is written in four different ways. Only one of these is grammatically correct. Select the correct sentence.


1. The jury are not unanimous in their verdict.
2. The jury is not unanimous in its verdict.
3. The jury are not unanimous by their verdict.
4. The jury are not unanimous in its verdict.


1. The Himalayas forma great barrier on the north of India.
2. Himalayas form a great barrier in the north of India.
3. Himalayas form a great barrier on the north of India.
4. The Himalayas forma great barrier in the north of India.


1. Each of the participants were given a gift.
2. Everyone of the participants were given a gift.
3. All of the participants was given a gift.
4. Each of the participants was given a gift.


1. There are no less than fifty students in the class.
2. There are no fewer than fifty students in the class.
3. There are not fewer than fifty students in the class.
4. There are not lesser than fifty students in the class.


1. He exclaimed that he will steal again.
2. He exclaimed regretfully that he would never steal again.
3. He expressed his willingness that he may steal again.
4. He exclaimed regretfully that he will never steal again.

Directions for questions 21 to 25: 

In each of the following questions, a sentence is split into four parts labeled A, B, C and D.

Rearrange the parts to form the original sentence and select the correct order.

Q21. A. that she would not speak for other backward classes
B. because she firmly believed that it was necessary now
C. she ventured todo so on thisone occasion
D. although the minister had previously emphasized

1. ACBD 
2. BACD 
3. CBAD 

Q22. A. remains the same amount of water
B. the research revealed that children can
C. That a pint of water poured from a small glass into a large one
D. Learn to count long before recognition

1. CDBA 
2. BCDA 
3. BDCA 

Q23. A. he first made copies of more than twenty
B. in order to raise money
C. the artist so much treasured his collection of portraits
D. learn to count long before the recognition.

1. BACD 
2. CDBA 
3. CDAB 

Q24. A. all over the Himalayan ranges
B. many of them chiseled from solid rocks centuries ago
C. hundreds of monasteries
D. dot the mountain regions

1. DBAC 
2. DABC 
3. CBAD 

Q25. A. to grant a concession for oil exploration to the company
B. It was the loss of revenue from tourism
C. that would later be known by the name of Aramco
D. that in 1995 led to Saudi authorities

1. ADBC 
2. BDAC 
3. BDCA 

Directions for questions 26 to 30:

An idiom with four possible meanings are given. Choose the correct meaning.

Q26. To eat a humble pie

1. to give feast 
2. to work hard 
3. to  apologise 
4. To play fast and loose


1. tosing aloud 
2. To play dishonestly 
3. Toshow kindness
4. to say something and do something else

Q28. In the nick of time

1. at the exact time 
2. in advance 
3. long before time 
4. for want of time

Q29. Hand and glove

1. complete and safe 
2. on intimate terms 
3. safe and sound 
4. opposite in views

Q30. In apple-pie order

1. in a sweet manner 
2. in neat arrangement 
3. in great disorder 
4. In large crowds

Section 2: 

Quantitative Ability (30 questions in 30 minutes)

Q31. If Then what is 2A + 3B - 4C?

Q32. On the same side of a tower, two objects are located. Observed from the top of the tower, their angles of depression are 45 degree and 60 degree. If the height of the tower is 150 m, the distance between the objects is:

1] 63.5 m 
2] 76.9 m 
3] 86.7 m 
4] 90 m

Q33. The difference between the squares of two consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:

1] 3 
2] 6 
3] 7 
4] 8

Q34. The least number which should be added to 2497 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 5, 6, 4 and 3 is:

1] 3 
2] 13
3] 23
4] 33

Q35. A certain factory employed 600 men and 400 women and the average wage was Rs. 25.50 per day. If a woman got Rs. 5 les than a man, then what are their daily wages?

1] Man : Rs. 25; Woman : Rs. 20 
2] Man : Rs. 27.50, Woman : Rs. 22.50
3] Man : Rs. 30, Woman : Rs. 25 
4] Man : Rs. 32.50, Woman : Rs. 27.50

Q36. The ratio of the ages of a man and his wife is 4 : 3, After 4 years, this ratio will be 9 : 7. If at the time of marriage, the ratio was 5 : 3, then how many years ago were they married?

1] 8 years 
2] 10 years 
3] 15 years 
4] None of These

Q37. A number, when 35 is subtracted from it, reduces to its 80 percent. What is four-fifth of that number?

1] 70 
2] 90 
3] 120 
4] 140

Q38. If 20% of A = B and 40% of B = C, then 60% of (A + B) is:

1] 30% of C 
2] 60% of C
3] 75% of C 
4] None of these

Q39. The profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 832 is equal to the loss incurred when the same article is sold for Rs. 448. What should be the sale price for making 50% profit?

1] Rs. 920 
2] Rs. 960 
3] Rs. 1060 
4] Rs. 1200

Q40. A businessman sold 2/3 of his stock at a gain of 20% and the rest at a gain of 14%. The overall percentage of gain to the businessman is:

1] 12%
2] 17% 
3] 18% 
4] 20%

Q41. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio (1/2):(1/3):(1/4) and its perimeter is 104 cm. The length of the longest side is:

1] 52 cm 
2] 48 cm 
3] 32 cm 
4] 26 cm

Q42. In a partnership, A invests 1/6 of the capital for 1/6 of the time, B invests 1/3 of the capital for 1/3 of the time and C, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of Rs. 4600, Bs share is:

1] Rs. 650
2] Rs. 800
3] Rs. 960
4] Rs. 100

Q43. A and B together can complete a work in 12 days. A alone can complete it in 20 days. If B does the work only for half a day daily, then in how many days A and B together will complete the work?

1] 10 days 
2] 11 days 
3] 15 days 
4] 20 days

Q44. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?

1] 15 min 
2] 20 min 
3] 27.5 min 
4] 30 min

Q45. A train running at 7/11 of its original speed reached a place in 22 hours. How much time could be saved if the train would have run at its original speed?

1] 7 hours 
2] 8 hours 
3] 14 hours 
4] 16 hours

Q46. A train M leaves Meerut at 5 a.m. and reaches Delhi at 9 a.m. Another train leaves Delhi at 7 a.m. and reaches Meerut at 10.30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?

1] 7.36 am 
2] 7.56 am 
3] 8 am 
4] 8.26 am

Q47. A 270 metres long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train running in opposite direction at the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the length of the other train?

1] 230 m 
2] 240 m 
3] 260 m 
4] 320 m

Q48. A boat takes 19 hours for travelling downstream from point A to point B and coming back to a point C midway between A and B. If the velocity of the stream is 4 kmph and the speed of the boat in still water is 14 kmph, what is the distance between A and B?

1] 160 km 
2] 180 km 
3] 200 km 
4] 220 m

Q49. A vessel is filled with liquid, 3 parts of which are water and 5 parts syrup. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water so that the mixture may be half water and half syrup?

1] 1/3 
2] 1/4 
3] 1/5 
4] 1/7

Q50. In how many ways can 21 books on English and 19 books on Hindi be place in a row on a shelf so that two books on Hindi may not be together?

  1. 1] 3990 
  2. 2] 1540 
  3. 3] 1995 
  4. 4] 3672

Q51. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting a queen of club or a king of heart is:

  1. 1] 1/13 
  2. 2] 2/13 
  3. 3] 1/26 
  4. 4] 1/52

Directions for questions 52 to 56: 

The pie-chart provided below gives the distribution of land (in a village) under various food crops. Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the questions that follow.


Q52. Which combination of three crops contributes to 50% of the total area under the food crops?

1] Wheat, Barley and Jowar 
2] Rice, Wheat and Jowar
3] Rice Wheat and Barley 
4] Bajra, Maize and Rice

Q53. If the total area under Jowar was 1.5 million acres, then what was the area (in million acres) under rice?

1] 6 
2] 7.5 
3] 9 
4] 4.5

Q54. If the production of wheat is 6 times that of barley, then what is the ratio between the yield per acre of wheat and barley?

1] 3 : 2 
2] 3 : 1 
3] 12 : 1 
4] 2 : 3

Q55. If the yield per acre of rice was 50% more than that of barley, then the production of barley is What percent of that of rice?

1] 30% 
2] 33.33% 
3] 35% 
4] 36%

Q56. If the total area goes up by 5%, and the area under wheat production goes up by 12%, then what will be the angle for wheat in the new pie- hart?

1] 62.4 degree 
2] 76.8 degree 
3] 80.6 degree 
4] 84.2 degree 

Q57. Two numbers A and B are such that their GM is 20% lower than their AM. Find the ratio between the numbers.

1] 3 : 2 
2] 4 : 1 
3] 2 : 1 
4] 3 : 1

Q58. If a times the ath term of an AP is equal to b times the both term, find (a + b)th term.

1] 0
2] a2 - b2 
3] a - b 
4] 1

Q59. Find the value of the expression: 1 - 4 + 5 - 8 . . . to 50 terms.

1] -150 
2] -75 
3] -50 
4] 75

Q60. What is the least number of square tiles required to pave the floor of a room 15 m 17 cm long and 9 m 2 cm broad?

1] 814 
2] 820 
3] 840 
4] 844

Section 3:
Logical Reasoning (30 questions in 30 minutes)

Directions for questions 61 to 65: 

In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer 

(1) if only assumption I is implicit; 
(2) if only assumption II is implicit; 
(3) if either I or II is implicit; 
(4) if neither I nor II is implicit and 
(5) if both I and II are implicit.

Q61. Statement : 
Apart from the entertainment value of television, its educational value cannot be ignored.

Assumptions : 
I. People take television to be a means of entertainment only.
II. The educational value of television is not realized properly.

Q62. Statement : 
Children are influenced more by their teachers nowadays.

Assumptions :
I. The children consider teachers as their models.
II. A large amount of childrens time is spent in school.

Q63. Statement : 
Read this notice before entering the club.

Assumptions : 
I. People are literate.
II. No blind person comes to the club.

Q64. Statement : 
The programme will start at 6 p.m. but you can come there upto 7 p.m. or so and still there is no problem.

Assumptions : 
I. The programme will continue even after 7 p.m.
II. The programme may not even start by that time.

Q65. Statement : Blue tie would help up identify our staff from others. — A suggestion in a company.

Assumptions : 
I. The Company needs to identify its staff.
II. Blue tie 7 is the latest fashion.

Q66. Lakshimi and Meena are Rohans wives. Shalini is Meenas step-daughter. How is Lakshmi related to Shalini?

1] Sister 
2] Mother-in-Law 
3] Mother 
4] Step-mother

Q67. Daya has a brother Anil. Daya is the son of Chandra. Bimal is Chandras father. In terms of relationship, what is Anil Bimal?

1] Son 
2] Grandson 
3] Brother 
4] Grandfather

Q68. Rahuls mother is the only daughter of Monik as father. How is Monikas husband related to Rahul?

1] Uncle 
2] Father 
3] Grandfather 
4] Brother

Q69. If (i) M is brother of N;
(ii) B is brother of N; and 
(iii) M is brother of D, then which of the following
statements is definitely true?

1] N is brother of B 
2] N is brother of D 
3] M is brother of B 
4] D is brother of M

Q70. Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is sister of Atul. Ravi is son of Rekha. How is Deepak related to Rekha?

1] son 
2] Brother 
3] Nephew 
4] Father

Q71. Count the number of triangles in the following figure:

1] 15
2] 16
3] 17
4] 18

Q72. How many squares does the following figure contain?

1] 18
2] 19
3] 25
4] 27

Q73. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded?

1] 5279431 
2] 5978213 
3] 8251896 
4] 8543691

Q74. In a certain code, RIPPLE is written as 613382 and FIFE is written as 8192. How is PILLER written in that code?

1] 318826 
2] 318286 
3] 618826 
4] 338816

Q75. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the code for SEARCH?

1] 246173 
2] 214673 
3] 214763 
4] 216473

Q76. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents Elephants, Wolves, and Animals?

Directions for questions 78 to 80:
In each of the following questions, choose the Venn diagram which best illustrates the relationship among three given items.

Q78. Diseases, Leprosy, Scurvy

Q79. Hockey, Cricket, Games

Q80. Sun, Moon, Stars

Q81. What terms will fill the blank spaces?
Z, X, V, T, R, (.....), (.....)

1] O, K 
2] N, M 
3] K, S 
4] P, N

Q82. Which term comes next in the sequence: nd iy dt yo tj?

1] mp 
2] nq 
3] of 
4] oe

Q83. What will be the next term in: BDF, DFI, DHL.?

1] CJM
2] EIM 
3] EJO 
4] EMI

Q84. Which term will replace the question mark in the series?


1] ZKW 
2] ZKU 
3] ZAB 
4] XKW

Q85. Choose the term which will continue the following series:

P 3 C, R 5 F, T 8 I, V 12 L,?

1] Y 17 O 
2] X 17 M 
3] X 17 O 
4] X 16 O

Directions for Questions to 86 to 87: 

In each of the following questions four sets of three sentences are given. You have to identify whether the three sentences in each of three sets are logically related.

Q86. A) No M is P. All R is M. All R is P.
B) As are wrong. No A is C. No Cs are wrong.
C) Some Cs are As. Most Cs are right. Most As are right.
D) No M is P. All R is M. No R is P.

1] Only A 
2] Only B 
3] C and D 
4] Only D

Q87. A) Either mum shouts or dad shouts. Mum shouts. Dad shouts.
B) Some balls are red. Some red is green. All balls are green
C) All geeks are mad. Some mad is cyber. No geek is cyber.
D) Goats are sentimental. Sentimental cries. Goat cries.

1] Only B 
2] A and B 
3] Only D 
4] C and D

Directions for Questions 88 to 90:

In each of the following questions a main statement is followed by four statements: A, B, C and D.

Choose the ordered pair of statements where the first statement implies the second, and the two statements are logically consistent with the main statement.

Q88. When it does not rain, frogs croak

A) It did not rain 
B) It rained
C) The frogs did not croak 
D) The frogs croaked

1] AC 
2] CA 
3] AD 
4] DC

Q89. Kamal drinks either tea or juice
A) Kamal does not drink tea
C) Kamal drinks juice
B) Kamal drinks tea
D) Kamal does not drink juice

1] AB 
2] CD 
3] AC 
4] BC

Q90. A and B cannot be selected if X and Y are selected in that order

A) A and B are selected
C) Y and X are selected in that order
B) X and Y are not selected in that order
D) A and B are not selected

1] CA 
2] BC 
3] AB 
4] AD


Section 1: Verbal Ability

1. 2, 2. 3, 3. 3, 4. 3, 5. 2, 6. 3, 7. 4, 8. 3, 9. 3, 10. 4, 11. 1, 12. 2, 13. 2, 14. 3, 15. 3, 16. 1, 17. 1, 18. 4, 19. 2, 20. 2
21. 4, 22. 3, 23. 2, 24. 4, 25. 2, 26. 3, 27. 4, 28. 1, 29. 2
30. 2

Section 2: Quantitative Ability

31. 3, 32. 1, 33. 4, 34. 3, 35. 2, 36. 3, 37. 4, 38. 4, 39. 2
40. 3, 41. 2, 42. 2, 43. 3, 44. 4, 45. 2, 46. 2, 47. 1, 48. 2, 49. 3, 50. 2, 51. 3, 52. 3, 53. 1, 54. 2, 55. 2, 56. 2, 57. 2, 58. 1, 59. 2, 60. 1.

Section 3: Logical Reasoning

61. 5, 62. 1, 63. 5, 64. 1, 65. 1, 66. 3, 67. 2, 68. 2, 69. 3
70. 1, 71. 1, 72. 4, 73. 3, 74. 1, 75. 2, 76. 1, 77. 1, 78. 1, 79. 1, 80. 3, 81. 1, 82. 4, 83. 3, 84. 1, 85. 3, 86. 4, 87. 3, 88. 3, 89. 3, 90. 3


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