NEET 2018. Latest Updates National Eligibility and Entrance Test March 2018

NEET 2018 guide to get every essential information and latest updates about NEET 2018 and know about the Results, Answer Keys, Syllabus, Application Form, Admit Card and Dates. which are verified and updated here on March 19, 2018 all details on recent event of NEET 2018 is updated till this minute and be the first person to discover and make use of the ample official links provided in NEET page.

Last modified:19-03-2018

Know all about NEET Exam, here. Grasp latest updates on NEET. NEET is an All India Level Entrance Exam conducted for admission to Undergraduate courses on MBBS,BDS and Postgraduate courses on MD,MS in India. NEET UG Exam is conducted by the CBSE and NEET PG is conducted by NBE. Explore all vital information on NEET Exam Dates, Exam Pattern, Syllabus, Admit Card, Result instantly from this page.

NEET Application Form Correction 2018:

National Board of Examination (NBE) has started the NEET 2018 Application Form Correction facility on 15th March 2018. Candidates can do NEET Application Form Correction 2018 till  17th March 2018 (11:50 PM). CBSE will provide ONE TIME OPPORTUNITY for NEET Application Form Correction 2018, to the candidates only in the data which may affect the merit. So, candidates should fill the NEET application form 2018 carefully. Candidates can make NEET Application Form Correction 2018 in the uploaded particulars & scanned images. Candidate can edit the following data in NEET Application Form Correction 2018:

1. Identification Identity:

Candidates who failed to add their Aadhaar Number or the Aadhaar Enrollment Number in NEET 2018 Application Form earlier, can add it now in NEET Application Form Correction 2018. Candidates who already added their Aadhaar Number with nationality as OCIs, PCIs, NRIs & foreigner are not eligible to make the correction.

2. Date of Birth / Gender:

Candidates those who have already filled up the details in NEET 2018 Application Form on the basis their Aadhaar Card cannot edit in this section. Candidates those who filled up the 2018 NEET Application Form on the basis of ID such as Passport, Ration card, Bank Account Number, etc, can change their date of birth and gender during NEET 2018 Form correction.

3. State Code of Eligibility:

Any Candidate can change the details in this section, there is no restriction on this section.

4. Category:

Any Candidate can also edit the details in this section. But those who are changing the details in already given category, will have to to pay the requisite amount for editing the category. The correction will only be implemented if you will pay the application online.

5. Disability Status:

All candidate can edit this section. Any change in this "Disability Status" section will result in the higher fee and the change will be implemented only after the payment.

6. Medium of the Paper:

Any candidates can edit the already entered details in this section. However, if you change the Regional Language then you also need to change the choice of test center.

7. Examination Center:

All candidates can change the Examination Center.

8. Qualifying Examination Code & Percentage (%) of Marks Obtained in Class 12th:

Any Candidate can alter the details entered in the field of "Qualifying Examination Code & Percentage (%) of Marks Obtained in Class 12th".

9. Parents Name (Father’s & Mother’s):

All candidates can make the correction & interchange the name of their Father & Mother.

NEET Admit Card 2018 for PG Course Demo Test - Released:

National Board of Examination (NBE) has released the admit cards for NEET PG and NEET MDS 2018. Apart from the NEET PG 2018 admit cards, candidates who have applied for the exam can also access demo test ahead of the exam. Last date for downloading the NEET PG 2018 Admit Card is January 7, 2018. 

Download the NEET PG 2018 Admit Card
Check and download the NEET MDS 2018 Admit Card
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NEET May Be Conducted Twice A Year From 2018:

With the introduction of National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET (National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test) - the national level medical entrance exam - and JEE - national level engineering entrance exam - might be conducted twice a year to give an opportunity to the students to bring out their best performance, Union Minister of State for Human Resource Development (HRD) Upendra Kushwaha informed Lok Sabha, on December 18, 2018. Currently both the NEET and JEE exams - along with several other exams- are organised by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). From 2018, NTA will conduct those entrance exams.

CBSE NEET Exam 2018 - Tentatively In May, Admission To Be Completed By August

CBSE NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) 2018 is most likely to be held on 10 May 2018 (Thursday), as per the recent report by the Times of India.  Medical Council of India (MCI) will complete the admission process for the medical and dental courses by 18 August, 2018. Last year, NEET official notification was published at the end of January month, the same trend can be expected this year.

About NEET Exam 2018:

National Eligibility cum Entrance Test popularly known as NEET is National Level entrance examination for students who wish to join Under-Graduate Medical Course like MBBS (or) Dental Course like BDS and also for Postgraduate Course (MD/MS) in Government or Private Medical Colleges in India. National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for Under-Graduation (NEET-UG) Examination is conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) every year for admissions to Under-Graduate Medical/ Dental Courses. For the First Time, CBSE conducted NEET UGC Exam on 5 May 2013. National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for Post-Graduation (NEET-PG) Examination is conducted by the National Board of Examinations (NBE) for admissions to various Post-Graduate MD/ MS and PG Diploma Courses.

Seat Allotment through NEET Score 2018

NEET UG seats are classified in the following categories:
(i) All India Quota Seats - 15%
(ii) State Government Quota Seats - 85%
(iii) State/ Management/ NRI Quota Seats in Private Medical/Dental Colleges or any Private/ Deemed University
(iv) Central Pool Quota Seats

Category-wise Seat Reservation Criteria under NEET UG

Category Percentage of Reservation
Scheduled Category 15%
Scheduled Tribes 7.5%
OBC & Non-Creamy Layer 27%
Physically Handicapped (PH) 3% (On Horizontal basis)

NEET PG seats are classified in the following categories:
(i) All India Quota Seats - 50% (all states except Andhra Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Telangana)
(ii) State Government Quota Seats (including the states of Andhra Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Telangana)
(iii) State/ Management/NRI Quota Seats in Private Medical/Dental Colleges or any Private/ Deemed University
(iv) MD/MS/PG Diploma courses at Armed Forces Medical Services Institutions
(v) DNB Broad specialty courses

Colleges/Universities Not Accepting NEET Score 2018

Colleges/Universities not accepting NEET UG score for Under Graduate Programs are mentioned below
  • JIPMER (Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research)
  • AIIMS New Delhi
  • AIIMS Bhopal
  • AIIMS Bhubaneswar
  • AIIMS Jodhpur
  • AIIMS Patna
  • AIIMS Raipur
  • AIIMS Rishikesh
Colleges/Universities not accepting NEET PG score for Post Graduate Programs MD/MS seats are mentioned below:
  • AIIMS, New Delhi
  • PGIMER, Chandigarh
  • SGPGIMS, Lucknow
  • JIPMER, Puducherry
  • NIMHANS, Bengaluru
  • Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Trivandrum

NEET Exam Official Notification 2018

CBSE released official Notification for NEET UG Exam, which is granted below

View the official NEET UG Admission Notice

National Board of Examinations (NBE) released official Notification for NEET PG Exam, which is granted below

View the NEET PG official notification

NEET Application Form 2018:

Candidates have to apply for NEET Exam through Online mode only, using the official link granted below.

Apply for NEET UG Exam

Apply for NEET PG Exam

During Online Application Submission of NEET Exam, you have to upload the scanned copy of following particulars:
  • Your Passport Size Photo - It should be in JPEG format between 10 KB and 100 KB in size
  • Your Signature - It should be in JPEG format between 3KB and 20 KB in size
  • Your Right hand index finger impression - It should be in JPEG format between 3 KB and 20 KB in size

Application FEE Details for NEET UG Exam

  • Rs.1,400/- for GENERAL/OBC Category candidates
  • Rs.750/- for SC/ ST/ PH Category candidates
You can pay the fee in both online mode (via Credit Card/ Debit Card/ Internet Banking) and offline modes (via e-challan by depositing fee in CBSE’s bank account in any of the prescribed bank)

Application FEE Details for NEET PG Exam

  • Rs.3,750/- for GENERAL/OBC Category candidates
  • Rs.2,750/- for SC/ ST/ PH Category candidates

NEET Eligibility Criteria 2018:

Age Limit for NEET UG Exam

  • Minimum Age Limit is 17 years; Maximum Age Limit is 25 years.
  • There is relaxation for candidates belonging to SC/ ST/ OBC category, which is 5 years.

Other Eligibility Criteria for NEET UG Exam

  • Indian Nationals,
  • Non Resident Indians (NRI’s),
  • Overseas Citizen of India (OCI’s),
  • Persons of Indian Origin (PIO’s) &
  • Foreign Nationals are eligible for appearing in the NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY CUM ENTRANCE TEST (UG).

Eligibility Criteria for NEET PG Exam

Candidate Applying for NEET PG exam should provide the following particulars
  • MBBS degree or Provisional MBBS Pass Certificate 
  • Permanent or provisional registration certificate of MBBS qualification issued by the Medical Council of India or State Medical Council
  • Completed one year of internship or/are likely to complete the internship

NEET Exam Dates 2018

Important Dates scheduled for NEET UG Exam are mentioned in the following table
Events Dates
NEET 2018 Online Application Submission Starts 08.02.2018 (Thursday)
Last date for submitting the Online Application form 09.03.2018 (Friday)
NEET UG Admit-Card Availability  2nd week of April, 2018
NEET 2018 Exam Date  May 6, 2018
Display of NEET UG OMR Answer Sheet available soon
NEET 2018 official Answer Key Announcement available soon
NEET 2018 Result Declaration 1st Week of June, 2018

Important Dates scheduled for NEET PG Exam are mentioned in the following table
Events Dates
NEET PG 2017 Online Registration starts October 31,2017
Last date for submitting the Online Application form November 27, 2017
NEET PG 2018 Exam Date January 7, 2018
NEET PG 2018 Results Announced

NEET Exam Pattern 2018 - UG Exam

NEET UG Exam held in a pen and paper based (offline) mode on May 6, 2018. NEET Question papers are available in the following languages:
  • Hindi
  • English
  • Gujarati
  • Marathi
  • Oriya
  • Bengali
  • Assamese
  • Telugu
  • Tamil
  • Kannada
Candidates opting for Hindi would be provided Bilingual Test Booklet i.e. in Hindi and in English. Candidates opting for vernacular languages would be provided Bilingual Test Booklet i.e. in selected language and in English. NEET Exam consists of 180 objective type questions (four options with single correct answer) from subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany & Zoology) / Biotechnology. There are 90 questions from Biology and 45 questions each from Physics and Chemistry. The total duration of NEET paper is 03 hours from 10.00 a.m. to 01.00 p.m.
Sr.No.  Sections of NEET UG Exam No. of Questions (Objective type) Maximum Marks Duration
1 Physics 45 180   
3 hours
2 Chemistry 45 180
3 Biology 90 360
  Total 180 questions 720
Marking Scheme for NEET UGC:- Each Questions carries 4 marks. For each correct answer, 4 marks is granted. For each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted from the total score.

NEET Exam Pattern 2018 - PG Exam

NEET PG Exam held in a pen and paper based (offline) mode only. NEET PG exam comprises of 300 Multiple Choice Questions with single correct response questions in English language only. Total Time allotted for NEET PG Exam is 3 hours 30 minutes.
  GRAND TOTAL 300 questions

There shall be no negative marking.

NEET Syllabus 2018 for UG Exam:

The NEET UG syllabus has been released by exam conducting authority, Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). The syllabus and standard of questions are based on Class 11 and 12 subjects, topics and chapters. The entire syllabus for Physics, Chemistry, Biology Sections of NEET UG Exam is granted below.

Detailed NEET UG syllabus

NEET Syllabus 2018 for PG Exam:

The NEET PG Exam syllabus shall comprise of subjects/ knowledge areas as per the Graduate Medical Education Regulations issued by Medical Council of India with prior approval of Government of India.

Updated NEET PG syllabus

NEET UG Result 2018 

NEET result for UG 2018 has been declared by CBSE on 05th June, 2018 (Tuesday), which is available on online only. You can download your NEET UG score. Here, You can know your NEET UG Score along with your All India rank. Out of the 10,90,085 students appeared 6,11,539 have qualified the medical entrance examination NEET UG. Of these, 2,66,221 were male aspirants while 3,45,313 were females. Know the All India Rank for various mark range of NEET and also get the NEET Cut off marks for various category now.

NEET 2018 Qualifying Criteria 

NEET PG 2018 result has been declared on 15th January 2018 which is available on online only. Category wise minimum passing Criteria for NEET UG and PG Exam is given below
Category Passing Criteria for NEET PG
General 50th percentile
OBC/ SC/ ST 40th percentile
PWD 45th percentile

Validity Period of NEET 2018 Score

NEET UG as well as PG Score is valid for one year only, i.e. for the current year from the date of NEET UG, PG Result Declaration.

NEET 2017 Official Questions with correct Answer:

Official questions of NEET 2018 Exam which was held on 6 May 2018, is updated in this page everyday. Make use of it to the fullest and succeed in your NEET 2018 exam.

Paper Code B:-

1) Which of the following is a sink for CO?
    a) Micro organisms present in the soil
    b) Oceans
    c) Plants
    d) Haemoglobin

Answer:- a) Micro organisms present in the soil

2) The element Z=114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and electronic configuration?
    a) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2
    b) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p4
    c) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6
    d) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p5

Answer:- a) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2

3) For a given reaction, DeltaH = 35.5 kJ mol-1 and DeltaS = 83.6 JK-1 mol-1. The reaction is spontaneous at: (Assume that DeltaH and DeltaS do not vary with temperature)
    a) T > 425 K
    b) all temperatures
    c) T > 298 K
    d) T < 425 K

Answer:- a) T > 425 K

4)  Identify A and predict the type of reaction


5) Which of the following is dependent on temperature?
    a) Molarity
    b) Mole fraction
    c) Weight percentage
    d) Molality

Answer:- a) Molarity
Explanation:- Molarity includes volume of solution which can change with change in temperature.

6) With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
    a) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
    b) Both bond angle and bond length change
    c) Both bond angles and bond length remains same
    d) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

Answer:- c) Both bond angles and bond length remains same.
Explanation:- There is no change in bond angles and bond lengths in the conformations of ethane. There is only change in dihedral angle.

7) Name the gas that can readily decolourises acidified KMnO4 solution:
    a) SO2
    b) NO2
    c) P2O5
    d)  CO2

Answer:- a) SO2
Explanation:- SO2 is readily decolourises acidified KMnO4.

8) It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that
    a)  Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing
    b) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing
    c) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
    d) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising

Answer:- d) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
Explanation:- Inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding on moving down the group in heavier p-block elements is called inert pair effect.
As a result, Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV)
Sn(IV) is more stable than Sn(II)
-> Pb(IV) is easily reduced to Pb(II)
-> Pb(IV) is oxidising agent
Sn(II) is easily oxidised to Sn(IV)
->  Sn(II) is reducing agent

9)  Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 -> 2XY is given below:
i)  X2 -> X + X (fast)
ii)  X + Y ⇔ XY + Y (slow)
iii)  X + Y -> XY (fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be

    a) 2
    b) 0
    c) 1.5
    d)  1

Answer:- c) 1.5

10) The equilibrium constants of the following are
N2 + 3H2 ⇔ 2NH3     K1
N2 + O2  ⇔ 2NO        K2 
H2 + (1/2)O2 -> H2O 2   K3
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction
2NH3 + (5/2)O2 ⇔ 2NO + 3H2O,  will be

    a) K2 K33 /K1 
    b) K2 K3 /K1 
    c) K23 K3 /K1 
    d) K1 K33 /K2

Answer:-  a) K2 K33 /K1

11)  Which one is the wrong statement?
    a)  The uncertainty principle is DeltaE X Deltageq h/4pi
    b)  Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry and more balanced arrangement
    c) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms
    d)  De-Broglie's wavelength is given by lambda = h/mv, where m = mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle

Answer:- c)
Explanation:- Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of hydrogen like atoms is equal.

12) Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    a) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium
    b) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions
    c) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme
    d) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction

Answer:- a)
Explanation:- A catalyst decreases activation energies of both the forward and backward reaction by same amount, therefore, it speeds up both forward and backward reaction by same rate.
Equilibrium constant is therefore not affected by catalyst at a given temperature.

13) HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I ions the pair of species formed is
    a) HgI2, I
    b) HgI42-, I3
    c) Hg2I2, I
    d) HgI2, I3

Answer:- b)

14)  The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is

    a) III < I < II
    b) III < II < I
    c) II < I < III
    d) II < III < I

Answer:- c) II < I < III

15) An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is
    a) Grignard's reagent
    b) Ferrocene
    c) Cobaltocene
    d) Ruthenocene

Answer:- a)Grignard's reagent
Explanation:- Grignard's reagent i.e., RMgX is sigma-bonded organometallic compound.

16)  A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be
(Given that : SrCO3(s) ⇔  SrO(s) + CO2(g).
Kp = 1.6 atm)

    a) 10 litre
    b) 4 litre
    c) 2 litre
    d) 5 litre

Answer:- d) 5 litre

17) Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as
    a) Antiseptic
    b) Antipyretic
    c) Antibiotic
    d) Analgesic

Answer:- a) Antiseptic

18)  Pick out the correct statement with respect [Mn(CN)6]3–
    a) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
    b) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
    c) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
    d)  It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral

Answer:- b) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral

19)  Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct code
Column I Column II
(a) XX'
(i) T-shape
(b) XX'3
(ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(c) XX'5
(iii) Linear
(d) XX'7
(iv) Square-pyramidal
(v) Tetrahedral

(a)        (b)       (c)      (d)
a)      (iii)        (i)       (iv)      (ii)
b)      (v)        (iv)      (iii)      (ii)
c)      (iv)       (iii)       (ii)       (i)
d)      (iii)       (iv)       (i)       (ii)

Answer:- a) 
Explanation:-- XX' --->  Linear
XX'3 ----> Example : CIF3 ---->  T-shape
XX'5 ----> Example : BrF5 ----> Square pyramida
XX'7 ----> Example : IF7 ----> Pentagonal bipyramidal

20) The species, having bond angles of 120° is
    a) CIF3
    b) NCl3
    c) BCl3
    d) PH3

Answer:- c) BCl3

21) Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction

Answer:- c)

22)  If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be
    a) Halved
    b) Tripled
    c) Unchanged
    d) Doubled

Answer:- c) Unchanged
Explanation:- Kf (molal depression constant) is a characteristic of solvent and is independent of molality.

23) The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces
    a) Iodobenzene
    b) Phenol
    c) Benzene
    d) Ethyl chlorides

Answer:- b) Phenol

24) In the electrochemical cell
Zn|ZnSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSOis changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2? (Given, RT/F = 0.059)

    a) E1 < E2
    b) E1 > E2
    c) E1 = E
eq E1
    d) E1 = E2

Answer:- b) E1 > E2

25)  A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10–2 second–1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?
    a) 138.6 second
    b) 346.5 second
    c) 693.0 second
    d)  238.6 second

Answer:- a) 138.6 second

26) Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
    a)  O2, NO+
b)  CN, CO
    c) N2, O2-
    d)  CO, NO

Answer: b)  CN, CO

27)  In which pair of ions both the species contain S – S bond?
    a)  S4O62–, S2O32-
    b)  S2O72–, S2O82–
    c)  S4O62–, S2O72–
    d)  S2O72–, S2O32–

Answer:  a)  S4O62–, S2O32-

28) Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 10–4 mol L–1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is
    a)   2.66 × 10–12
    b)   4.5 × 10–11
    c)   5.3 × 10–12 
    d)  2.42 × 10–8

Answer:  c)   5.3 × 10–12

29)  Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field?
    a) K
    b) Rb
    c) Li
    d) Na

Answer:- c) Li

30) A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy deltaU of the gas in joules will be
    a) –500 J
    b) –505 J
    c) +505 J
    d) 1136.25 J

Answer:-  b) –505 J

31) The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to
    a)  Actinoid contraction
    b) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
    c) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
    d) The radioactive nature of actinoids

Answer:-  b)

32) The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is
    a)  Chromatography
    b) Crystallisation
    c) Steam distillation
    d) Sublimation

Answer:- c) Steam distillation
Explanation:- Steam distillation is the most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para  nitrophenols as there is intramolecular H-bonds in ortho nitrophenol.

33)  The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes: CoCl3. 6NH3. CoCl3. 5NH3. CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is
    a) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
    b) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
    c) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
    d) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl

Answer:- b)

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