NEET 2019 UG, PG Application, Schedule, Exam Pattern, Syllabus

Know all about NEET Exam, here. Grasp latest updates on NEET. NEET is an All India Level Entrance Exam conducted for admission to Undergraduate courses on MBBS,BDS and Postgraduate courses on MD,MS in India. NEET UG Exam is conducted by the CBSE and NEET PG is conducted by NBE. Explore all vital information on NEET Exam Dates, Exam Pattern, Syllabus, Admit Card, Result instantly from this page.
NEET 2019 UG, PG Application, Schedule, Exam Pattern, Syllabus
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NEET is the entrance exam to pursue undergraduate medical courses and dental course. Every year lakhs of students appear for NEET exam, the most difficult section will be Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. So the Students are requested to prepare well for the exam. NEET UG entrance exam schedule will be released by the National Testing Agency (NTA). The NEET-UG 2020 registration will begin on 2nd December 2019. Students can get the latest updates related to NEET Exam here.

NEET Admit Card 2019 to release today:

Today (April 15, 2019) National Testing Agency (NTA) will release the admit card or hall ticket for the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) on the official website This year, NEET entrance exam is scheduled to be conducted on May 15, 2019 from 2 pm to 5 pm. NEET entrance exam is mandatory for Indian candidates seeking admissions to medical and related courses in India and abroad. Candidates are advised to check their NEET 2019 admit card carefully and in case of any issue or error, they need to contact NTA. When candidate will download their NEET admit card 2019, a copy of the same in PDF format will also be sent to their registered email id.

Download NEET Admit Card 2019

NEET 2019 Application Form for UG Courses Released:

The National Testing Agency (NTA) has activated the Online Registration link for NEET 2019 (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) at on November 1 at 11.30 AM. Candidates can fill their NEET 2019 application form from the below provided direct official link. The last date for filling NEET 2019 Registration, NEET Application Form 2019 is November 30, 2018. The deadline for NEET 2019 application fee payment is December 1, 2018 (up to 11.30 PM). The NEET 2019 exam will be held across the country on May 6, 2019 as per the new amendments. NEET 2019 admit cards will be made available for download from April 15, 2019 onwards.

NEET 2019 Application Form Registration
NEET 2019 Application Form Login
To retrieve Forgotten Registration/Application Number
View the detailed Information Bulletin for NEET 2019 Exam

Documents required for filling NEET 2019 application:

During Online submission of NEET Application Form 2019, candidates have to upload the scanned copy of the following particulars:

  • Class 10 marksheet
  • Class 12 marksheet.
  • Scanned copy of candidate’s passport sized photograph.
  • Scanned copy of candidate’s signature.
  • Valid ID proof like Aadhaar card or Voter ID card.
♦ Passport Size Photo - It should be in JPEG format between 10 KB and 100 KB in size
♦ Signature - It should be in JPEG format between 3KB and 20 KB in size
♦ Right hand index finger impression - It should be in JPEG format between 3 KB and 20 KB in size

NEET 2019 Eligibility Criteria:

Age Limit for NEET 2019 UG Exam

  • Minimum Age Limit is 17 years; Maximum Age Limit is 25 years.
  • There is relaxation for candidates belonging to SC/ ST/ OBC category, which is 5 years.

Other Eligibility Criteria for NEET 2019 UG Exam

  • Indian Nationals,
  • Non Resident Indians (NRI’s),
  • Overseas Citizen of India (OCI’s),
  • Persons of Indian Origin (PIO’s) &
  • Foreign Nationals are eligible for appearing in the NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY CUM ENTRANCE TEST (UG).

NEET Application Form 2019 FEE Details for NEET UG Exam:

  • Rs.1,400/- for GENERAL/OBC Category candidates
  • Rs.750/- for SC/ ST/ PH Category candidates

candidates can pay the fee in both online mode (via Credit Card/ Debit Card/ Internet Banking) and offline modes (via e-challan by depositing fee in CBSE’s bank account in any of the prescribed bank)

Important Dates for NEET Exam 2019:

NEET Exam dates 2019 has been released by the CBSE. NEET 2019 Exam is Scheduled to be held on May 6, 2019. This Exam Date is strictly followed in all NEET 2019 Exam centres across India. All Important Dates including NEET Exam dates 2019 are mentioned in the following table:
Events Dates
NEET 2019 official notification released November 1, 2018 at 11.30 AM
NEET 2019 Online Application Submission Starts November 1, 2018
Last date for submitting the NEET Online Application form November 30, 2018
Last Date for Paying NEET Application Fee December 1, 2018 up to 11.50 PM
NEET Application Form - Correction Window opens To be notified
NEET UG Admit-Card Availability April 15, 2019
NEET 2019 Exam Date May 6, 2019
Display of NEET UG OMR Answer Sheet To be notified
NEET 2019 official Answer Key Availability To be notified
NEET 2019 Result Declaration To be notified
NEET 2019 Counselling First Round (All India Quota) To be notified
Last Date for joining in respective College To be notified
NEET 2019 Counselling Second Round (AIQ) To be notified
Last Date for joining in respective College To be notified
Mop-Up Round of NEET 2019 Counselling (AIQ) To be notified
Last Date for joining in respective College Last Week of August, 2019

NEET 2019 Application Form Correction :

National Board of Examination (NBE) has started the NEET 2018 Application Form Correction facility on 15th March 2018. Candidates can do NEET Application Form Correction 2018 till 17th March 2018 (11:50 PM). CBSE will provide ONE TIME OPPORTUNITY for NEET Application Form Correction 2018, to the candidates only in the data which may affect the merit. So, candidates should fill the NEET application form 2018 carefully. Candidates can make NEET Application Form Correction 2018 in the uploaded particulars & scanned images. Candidate can edit the following data in NEET Application Form Correction 2018:

1. Identification Identity:

Candidates who failed to add their Aadhaar Number or the Aadhaar Enrollment Number in NEET 2018 Application Form earlier, can add it now in NEET Application Form Correction 2018. Candidates who already added their Aadhaar Number with nationality as OCIs, PCIs, NRIs & foreigner are not eligible to make the correction.

2. Date of Birth / Gender:

Candidates those who have already filled up the details in NEET 2018 Application Form on the basis their Aadhaar Card cannot edit in this section. Candidates those who filled up the 2018 NEET Application Form on the basis of ID such as Passport, Ration card, Bank Account Number, etc, can change their date of birth and gender during NEET 2018 Form correction.

3. State Code of Eligibility:

Any Candidate can change the details in this section, there is no restriction on this section.

4. Category:

Any Candidate can also edit the details in this section. But those who are changing the details in already given category, will have to to pay the requisite amount for editing the category. The correction will only be implemented if you will pay the application online.

5. Disability Status:

All candidate can edit this section. Any change in this "Disability Status" section will result in the higher fee and the change will be implemented only after the payment.

6. Medium of the Paper:

Any candidates can edit the already entered details in this section. However, if you change the Regional Language then you also need to change the choice of test center.

7. Examination Center:

All candidates can change the Examination Center.

8. Qualifying Examination Code & Percentage (%) of Marks Obtained in Class 12th:

Any Candidate can alter the details entered in the field of "Qualifying Examination Code & Percentage (%) of Marks Obtained in Class 12th".

9. Parents Name (Father’s & Mother’s):

All candidates can make the correction & interchange the name of their Father & Mother.

NEET 2019 Exam Pattern:

Candidates who are appearing in NEET UG 2019 Exam can check the exact officially announced NEET Exam pattern 2019 here. Through the NEET exam pattern 2019, candidates will gain an insight into the NEET paper pattern, questions separation according to various sections, exam duration, marking scheme and other relevant information. NEET Exam Pattern 2019 is provided here in Clear table format comprises all information on Physics, Chemistry and Biology subjects. NEET UG Exam held in a pen and paper based (offline) mode on May 6, 2019. NEET Question papers are available in the following languages:

  • Hindi
  • English
  • Gujarati
  • Marathi
  • Oriya
  • Bengali
  • Assamese
  • Telugu
  • Tamil
  • Kannada
Candidates opting for Hindi would be provided Bilingual Test Booklet i.e. in Hindi and in English. Candidates opting for vernacular languages would be provided Bilingual Test Booklet i.e. in selected language and in English. NEET Exam consists of 180 objective type questions (four options with single correct answer) from subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany & Zoology) / Biotechnology. There are 90 questions from Biology and 45 questions each from Physics and Chemistry. The total duration of NEET paper is 03 hours from 10.00 a.m. to 01.00 p.m. The detailed NEET exam pattern 2018 is given below:
Sr.No. Sections of NEET UG Exam No. of Questions (Objective type) Maximum Marks Duration
1 Physics 45 180
3 hours
2 Chemistry 45 180
3 Biology 90 360
Total 180 questions 720

Marking Scheme for NEET UGC:- Each Questions carries 4 marks. For each correct answer, 4 marks is granted. For each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted from the total score.

NEET Syllabus 2019 for UG Exam:

The NEET syllabus 2019 for UG Course joining Entrance Exam has been released by exam conducting authority, Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). The NEET syllabus 2019 and standard of questions are based on Class 11th and 12th subjects, topics and chapters. Candidates can check Full detailed NEET Syllabus 2019 and get familiar with the NEET syllabus 2019 to prepare thoroughly for NEET 2019 Exam. The entire NEET syllabus 2019 for Physics, Chemistry, Biology Sections of CBSE NEET UG Exam is granted below.

Download the Detailed Subject-wise NEET UG syllabus

NEET 2019 Syllabus for Physics:

S. No.

Class XI

S. No.

Class XII


Physical world and measurement






Current Electricity


Laws of Motion


Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism


Work, Energy and Power


Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents


Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body


Electromagnetic Waves






Properties of Bulk Matter


Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation




Atoms and Nuclei


Behaviour of Perfect Gas and Kinetic Theory


Electronic Devices


Oscillations and Waves

NEET 2019 Syllabus for Chemistry:

S. No.

Class XI


Class XII


Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry


Solid State


Structure of Atom




Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties




Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure


Chemical Kinetics


States of Matter: Gases and Liquids


Surface Chemistry




General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements




p-Block Elements


Redox Reactions


d and f Block Elements




Coordination Compounds


s-Block Element (Alkali and Alkaline earth metals)


Haloalkanes and Haloarenes


Some p-Block Elements


Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers


Organic Chemistry- Some Basic Principles and Techniques


Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids




Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen


Environmental Chemistry






Chemistry in Everyday Life

NEET Syllabus 2019 for Biology:

S. No.

Class XI

S. No.

Class XII


Diversity in Living World




Structural Organization in Animals and Plants


Genetics and Evolution


Cell Structure and Function


Biology and Human Welfare


Plant Physiology


Biotechnology and Its Applications


Human Physiology


Ecology and Environment

NEET 2019 Exam Once A Year, To Be Handwritten:

In July 2018, the Education Ministry had announced that the newly formed National Testing Agency (NTA) will conduct NEET twice a year and the the exam will be computer-based (Online) from 2019. After recommendations from the the Health Ministry, Education Ministry now scrapped that plan. As per the new announcement, NEET, the entrance exam for medical and dental undergraduate programmes, will be held in May next year and will be handwritten i.e., pen-and-paper mode. NEET 2019 Exam will be held in the same number of languages as has been conducted last year (2018). The same Exam pattern followed in NEET 2018 Exam will be maintained. It has been official announced that, the online registration for the NEET 2019 will begin on November 1, 2018 and the exam will be held on May 5, 2019.

NEET Mop Up Round Seat Allotment Results 2018 Announced:

On 20th August, 2018, Medical Counseling Committee (MCC) of Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India, has published the Seat Allotment Result of UG NEET 2018 Mop Up Round, on its website The mop-up round of NEET 2018 counselling was held for the vacant seats for admission to first year MBBS/BDS 2018-19 in the ESIC colleges and Central and Deemed Universities. Candidates who allotted admissions through Mop Up Round counselling Results, can download their Allottment Letter from August 21, 2018 after 10:00 am. All the candidates who have been allocated seats are required to report to the allotted colleges by August 21, 2018.

Check NEET 2018 Final Result of Mop-Up Round
Check the NEET 2018 Provisional Seat Allotment Result and download the Allottment Letter

NEET 2nd Allotment Result 2018 declared:

On August 1, 2018, the results of NEET second round counselling for All India Quota seats have been released on the official website, All the candidates who did not get their name in the first allotment list can check the second allotment merit list. The direct official link to check the NEET 2nd round Allotment Result 2018 is granted below. The choice filling and locking process for the All India NEET 2018 second phase counselling will be started soon. MCC will conduct a final session of counselling between August 10 and 11. Seats which remain vacant after state quota counselling as well will then be filled during the mop up counselling. Those who are not allotted seat in the NEET 2018 second round but are already registered, need not re-register or pay again for the third round.

Check NEET 2nd Seat Allotment Result 2018

Extra Marks For NEET 2019 Tamil Candidates, Revised Ranking in 2 Weeks:

The Madras High Court asked the CBSE (Central Board of Secondary Exams) to grant 196 marks out of a total of 720 to all candidates who appeared in the NEET 2019 Exam in Tamil. As per the Madras High court order, CBSE will issue a revised ranking list in two weeks and NEET 2019 counselling for medical course will be suspended till then.

NEET 2019 Exam Dates Announced For February / May Exams:

From 2019, NEET exam will be conducted twice a year, by an agency named "National Testing Agency or NTA". NTA will also conduct JEE Main, UGC NET, CMAT and GPAT. So far, The Central Board of Secondary Education or CBSE has been organising National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) on behalf of the Medical Council Of India and the Health Ministry and NET on behalf of the University Grants Commission (UGC). NTA recently announced the Exam dates of NEET 2019 which is to be held in February and May months. Students can appear both the times in NEET and the best of the two scores would be taken in account for admission. There will be no change in NEET 2019 Syllabus. All important dates of NEET 2019 such as application form, admit card, answer key, result is now available in this page. Candidates who wish to appear in NEET 2019 Exam should note down the official NEET 2019 Important Date Schedule, which is granted below:

NEET 2019 Schedule February 2019 Important Dates May 2019 Important Dates
NEET 2019 online application form starts 01 Oct 2018 Second week of March 2019
Last date to apply online 31 Oct 2018 Second week of April 2019
NEET 2019 Slot booking To be announced To be announced
NEET 2019 Admit card availability To be announced To be announced
NEET 2019 Exam Date 3rd February to 17 February 2019 12th May 2019 to 26 May 2019
NEET 2019 Answer Key,
Response Sheet (OMR) availability
Within 7 days after exam (By 24th Feb, 2019) Within 7 days after exam (By 2nd June, 2019)
NEET 2019 Result Declaration First week of March 2019 First week of June 2019

UP NEET Seat Allottment Result 2018:

On July 5, 2018, Directorate General of Medical Education and Training Uttar Pradesh (DGME UP) has released UP NEET Seat Allottment First Round Result 2018 on its official website Candidates can download their allotment letters from July 06 to July 11, 2018. Date of joining is July 07 to July 12, 2018.

Direct official link for checking UP NEET Seat Allotment Result 2018

Tamil Nadu NEET Rank List 2018 Released:

On June 28, 2018, Tamil Nadu NEET Rank List has been released on the official website ( of Health and Family Welfare Department, Government of Tamil Nadu. The TN 2018 NEET merit list has been released separately for Government quota seats and for Management quota seats. Keerthana K. secured first rank in the state NEET 2018 Merit list, also, she is All India rank 12 holder. She had secured a total of 676 out of 720. Totally 25,417 students have been included in the Tamil Nadu NEET 2018 Merit List for government quota seats. It is mandatory to produce Nativity certificate, for admission to Tamil Nadu state quota seats. Candidates who are natives of Tamil Nadu and have completed their class VI to XII in Tamil Nadu itself, will not need to submit Nativity certificate. Candidates who are natives of Tamil Nadu but have studied in class VI to XII from other states either partly or completely will have to produce original certificates of their parents. The certificates needed would be Birth Certificate/ SSLC/ 10th/ 12th/ Degree/ Diploma/ Professional Course, and Ration Card/ Passport to ascertain the candidate's parents' nativity. The first phase of Tamil Nadu NEET 2018 counselling will begin on July 1 and end on July 5, 2018.

Check the Tamil Nadu NEET Rank List 2018

CBSE NEET 1st Round Seat Allotment 2018 Result Declared:

Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) released the first round seat allotment results for NEET-based all India counselling of undergraduate MBBS and BDS courses on June 22, 2018 at 4:00 pm on its official website as well as MCC conducts the counselling process for 15% All India Quota seats. The online registration for all India counselling was began on June 13 and it ended on June 18. Processing of NEET all India seat allotment was done on June 20 and June 21. According to the MCC all India counselling schedule, online registration for the second round of counselling will be conducted from July 6 to July 8, 2018. Candidates who have locked their choices in NEET 2018 1st round counselling can check their NEET 2018 seat allotment result status through the below provided direct official link:

Check the CBSE NEET 1st Round Seat Allotment 2018 Result

NEET Counselling 2018 Schedule Released:

Medical Counseling Committee (MCC) has released the schedule for the NEET 2018 counselling on its official website It is necessary for each candidate those who appear in NEET 2018 Counselling to register separately for NEET Counselling 2018. After declaration of the NEET 2018 result, Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) and various state counselling authorities will conduct the NEET counselling 2018 for providing admissions to candidates under 15% All India Quota (AIQ) seats in Government medical and dental colleges across all states (except J&K), 100% seats in Deemed and Central universities, seats reserved for Wards of Insured Persons (IP quota) in Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) medical colleges and seats at the Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC), Pune. The Directorate General of Health Services shortly DGHS, on behalf of the Medical Counselling Committee (MCC) will conduct NEET 2018 counselling for AIQ (All India Quota) seats in two rounds and for Deemed and Central universities in three rounds. Check the exact date and schedule for the NEET 2018 counselling process from the below table:

NEET 2018 Counseling Schedule: Round 1:



Registration, Choice Filling and Payment

13th June 2018-18th June 2018 (5pm as per server time)

Payment Facility

till 19th June 2018 (12 pm)

Choice Filling/Locking

19th June 2018 (10 am to 5 pm as per server time)

Processing of Seat Allotment

20th June 2018-21st June 2018


22nd June 2018


23rd June 2018-3rd July 2018

NEET 2018 Counseling Schedule: Round 2:



Registration, Choice Filling and Payment

6th July 2018-8th July 2018 (5pm as per server time)

Payment Facility

till 9th July 2018 (12 Noon)

Choice Filling/Locking

9th July 2018 (10 am-5 pm as per server time)

Processing of Seat Allotment

10th July 2018-11th July 2018


12th July 2018


13th July-22nd July 2018

NEET 2018 Counseling Schedule: Mop-Up Round:



Display of Seat Matrix for Mop-up Round

0th August 2018 to 11th August 2018

Registration, Choice Filling and Payment

12th August 2018 to 14th August 2018 (5pm as per server time)

Payment Facility

15th August 2018 (12 Noon)

Choice Filling/Locking

15th August 2018 (10am-5pm as per server time)

Processing of Seat Allotment

16th August 2018


17th August 2018


18th August-26th August 2018

Transfer of Non Reporting & Non Joining Vacant Seat to
Deemed/Central Universities for Mop-up on

27th August 2018

NEET to be held again by NTA in December 2018:

The National Testing Agency (NTA) might conduct the JEE/NEET 2018 exams again during the month of December, 2018. Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Kanpur was given the responsibility of setting up an agency NTA and begin the hiring of subject experts. This agency is came to be known as the National Testing Agency (NTA). The role of NTA, according to information on its official website is- ‘To…conduct NEET and JEE next year, the entrance exams that were so far conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). After the formation of NTA, JEE will be conducted twice a year.’ So this will be the great opportunity for students those who failed in NEET 2018 May Examination. NTA will conduct the first tests from December 2018, for the academic year of 2019.

CBSE NEET Result 2018 Declared:

CBSE on June 4, 2018 declared the NEET 2018 result on its official website and A total of 7,14,562 candidates have been qualified for the admission to MBBS/ BDS Courses in India. Candidates can check their CBSE NEET Result 2018 from the below provided direct official link:

Check the CBSE NEET Result 2018
Check official notification on CBSE NEET 2018 Result

NEET 2018 Answer Key Released:

CBSE displayed the NEET answer key on the website on May 25, 2018. Candidates have given opportunity to challenge against the official answer key for the questions in case of any doubt in the answer. NEET 2018 official answer keys are released after the NEET 2018 medical entrance examination which was held on May 6, 2018 in various centres across the country. According to the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), NEET aspirants have given an opportunity to make online challenge against the official NEET 2018 Answer Key on payment of non refundable processing fee of Rs.1000/- per answer challenged. Along with the official answer key of NEET 2018, the CBSE had also released the OMR sheets of candidates as well as the test paper booklet codes. NEET official answer key 2018 was open for display and for challenging for a period of two days, ie. between May 25 and May 27, 2018.

Check the NEET Answer Key 2018

NEET UG 2018 Check for Exam Preparation Tips:

NEET 2018 Exam for admission to UG courses in prestigious medical colleges across India, is going to be held on May 6, 2018 all over the country. The preparation for NEET 2018 examination requires a well-planned strategy both for the short and medium term. Here are the useful tips to prepare well for your NEET 2018 Examination at the last minute:

1) A deep study of NCERT books is highly recommended.
2) The study sessions should be a mix of theory, problem-solving and revising all previous years' papers.
3) Equal emphasis should be given to all subjects.
4) It is equally important to pay attention to selected topics. These are:-

Physics - Mechanics, Optics, Thermodynamics and Nuclear Physics
Chemistry - Mole Concept, General Organic Chemistry, Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding, Coordination Chemistry
Biology - Ecology and Environment, Genetics, Cell Biology, Morphology, Reproduction and Physiology of Plants and Animals, Basics of Biotechnology

NEET 2018 Admit Card Released:

Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has recently uploaded NEET Admit Card 2018, which is scheduled to be held on May 6, 2018. Candidates can download their NEET 2018 Admit Card from the below provided direct official link of CBSE i.e.,

Download your NEET - 2018 - Admit Card

CBSE To Release NEET 2018 Admit Cards in April 2nd Week:

Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) is expected to release the admit cards for National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) 2018 Exam in 2nd Week of April 2018. The date sheet released by the Board says the NEET 2018 admit cards will be released in the second week of April in the official website Candidates who have registered for the examination can download the admit card from the official direct link which will be updated here. The test for admission to medical and dental courses will be held on 6 May 2018. NEET 2018 admit card releasing date has not been announced yet.

NEET 2018 Admit Card for PG Course Demo Test - Released:

National Board of Examination (NBE) has released the NEET admit card 2018 for NEET PG and NEET MDS 2018 Examination. Apart from the NEET PG 2018 admit cards, candidates who have applied for the exam can also access demo test ahead of the exam. Last date for downloading the NEET Admit Card 2018 for PG course is January 7, 2018.

Download the NEET PG 2018 Admit Card
Check and download the NEET MDS 2018 Admit Card

How many times a year NEET exams will be conducted?

With the introduction of National Testing Agency (NTA), NEET (National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test) - the national level medical entrance exam - and JEE - national level engineering entrance exam - might be conducted twice a year to give an opportunity to the students to bring out their best performance, Union Minister of State for Human Resource Development (HRD) Upendra Kushwaha informed Lok Sabha, on December 18, 2018. Currently both the NEET and JEE exams - along with several other exams- are organised by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). From 2018, NTA will conduct those entrance exams.

CBSE NEET Exam 2018 - Tentatively In May, Admission To Be Completed By August

CBSE NEET (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) 2018 is most likely to be held on 10 May 2018 (Thursday), as per the recent report by the Times of India. Medical Council of India (MCI) will complete the admission process for the medical and dental courses by 18 August, 2018. Last year, NEET official notification was published at the end of January month, the same trend can be expected this year.

About National Eligibility cum Entrance Test NEET Exam:

National Eligibility cum Entrance Test popularly known as NEET is National Level entrance examination for students who wish to join Under-Graduate Medical Course like MBBS (or) Dental Course like BDS and also for Postgraduate Course (MD/MS) in Government or Private Medical Colleges in India. National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for Under-Graduation (NEET-UG) Examination is conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) every year for admissions to Under-Graduate Medical/ Dental Courses. For the First Time, CBSE conducted NEET UGC Exam on 5 May 2013. National Eligibility cum Entrance Test for Post-Graduation (NEET-PG) Examination is conducted by the National Board of Examinations (NBE) for admissions to various Post-Graduate MD/ MS and PG Diploma Courses.

Seat Allotment through NEET 2019 Score:

NEET UG seats are classified in the following categories:
(i) All India Quota (AIQ) Seats - 15%
(ii) State Government Quota Seats - 85%
(iii) State/ Management/ NRI Quota Seats in Private Medical/Dental Colleges or any Private/ Deemed University
(iv) Central Pool Quota Seats

Category-wise Seat Reservation Criteria under NEET UG

Category Percentage of Reservation
Scheduled Category 15%
Scheduled Tribes 7.5%
OBC & Non-Creamy Layer 27%
Physically Handicapped (PH) 3% (On Horizontal basis)

NEET PG seats are classified in the following categories:
(i) All India Quota Seats - 50% (all states except Andhra Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Telangana)
(ii) State Government Quota Seats (including the states of Andhra Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Telangana)
(iii) State/ Management/NRI Quota Seats in Private Medical/Dental Colleges or any Private/ Deemed University
(iv) MD/MS/PG Diploma courses at Armed Forces Medical Services Institutions
(v) DNB Broad specialty courses

Colleges/Universities Not Accepting NEET 2019 Score:

Colleges/Universities not accepting NEET UG score for Under Graduate Programs are mentioned below

  • JIPMER (Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research)
  • AIIMS New Delhi
  • AIIMS Bhopal
  • AIIMS Bhubaneswar
  • AIIMS Jodhpur
  • AIIMS Patna
  • AIIMS Raipur
  • AIIMS Rishikesh
Colleges/Universities not accepting NEET PG score for Post Graduate Programs MD/MS seats are mentioned below:
  • AIIMS, New Delhi
  • PGIMER, Chandigarh
  • SGPGIMS, Lucknow
  • JIPMER, Puducherry
  • NIMHANS, Bengaluru
  • Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Trivandrum

NEET 2018 Admit Card:

NEET Admit Card 2018 for UG Course will be released in the first week of April 2018, by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). NEET Admit Card 2018 will be available in Online mode only, for the candidates those who succesfully filled their NEET 2018 Application Form and paid the exam fee. Candidates can download their NEET Admit Card 2018 in this page itself immediately after announcement by CBSE. The NEET Admit Card 2018 contains the following informations:

  • Name of the Candidate
  • Roll Number
  • Father’s Name
  • Category
  • Sub-Category
  • Date of Birth
  • Photograph
  • Signature
  • Language of Question Paper
  • Name and Address of examination center allotted to candidate
  • Exam Date, Timing

NEET 2017 Result - Rank Letter for 15% All India Quota seats

According to the NEET Result, Candidates who have qualified for 15% All India Quota seats will be able to download their Rank Letters from the CBSE official link (granted below) from July 4 onwards.

To know candidate’s qualifying status for 85% State Quota seats, States release their own merit lists.

Explore your NEET UG Result

Check the Rank Letter For Qualified Candidates For 15% All India Quota Seats

What are the details provided in NEET UG 2018 Result?

NEET UG Result holds the following details:
  • Candidate’s name
  • Mother's name of the candidate
  • Father's name of the candidate
  • Candidate’s Gender
  • Candidate’s Date of Birth
  • Candidate’s Nationality
  • Candidate’s Category/Sub-category
  • Candidate’s Application Number
  • Candidate’s roll number
  • Total marks secured by the candidate
  • Marks obtained in Physics
  • Marks obtained in Chemistry
  • Marks obtained in Biology
  • Total percentile secured
  • NEET All India Rank (AIR)
  • NEET Category rank
  • Qualifying status (either qualified or non-qualified)
  • NEET All India Quota Rank (AIQR) (for 15% all India quota seats)
  • Cut off score for counselling under 15% All India Quota seats

NEET 2018 Result Prediction - How to calculate NEET 2018 Score?

NEET Exam is conducted in single paper (online mode) of 180 objective type questions (four options with single correct answer) from subjects of Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany & Zoology) / Biotechnology. There are 90 questions from Biology and 45 questions each from Physics and Chemistry.

Each Questions carries 4 marks. For each correct answer, 4 marks is granted. For each incorrect answer, one mark will be deducted from the total score.

NEET score for each question in each section is granted as follows:
Sr.No. Sections of NEET UG Exam No. of Questions Maximum Marks Mark for each correct answer Mark for each wrong
1 Physics 45 180 4 1
2 Chemistry 45 180 4 1
3 Biology 90 360 4 1
Total 180 720

NEET Score calculation Formula:

NEET score in total = (Total number of correct answers x 4) - (Total number of incorrect answers)

NEET Result Prediction - Grab NEET 2017 Answer Key:

Before announcement of NEET Result, Candidates can check their NEET score with the help of NEET Answer key.CBSE officially released NEET Answer key date will be intimated on website.

Check the exact NEET Answer key for all set of question papers.

NEET 2018 Result - UG Qualifying Criteria:

Category wise minimum passing Criteria for candidates participating in NEET UG Exam is given below
Candidate’s Category Passing Criteria for NEET UG
General 50th percentile
OBC/ SC/ ST 40th percentile
PWD 45th percentile

Validity Period of NEET Score:

NEET UG Score is valid for one year only, i.e. for the current year from the date of NEET UG Result Declaration.

Resolution of Tie Cases in NEET 2018 Result:

If two or more candidates secure same score in NEET, Tie cases will be resolved by applying one after another, as applicable till the Tie is resolved.
(i) The candidate who obtains a higher mark in Biology as per the NEET Result will be given higher priority for NEET admissions.
(ii) If those candidate’s Biology marks are equal, candidates securing higher marks in Chemistry as per the NEET result will be given a higher rank in NEET.
(iii) If both Biology and Chemistry marks are equal, then the candidate who has marked less number of wrong answers in all subjects of NEET will be given better rank.
(iv) If all the above criteria are unable to resolve tie in NEET result, then the candidate’s Date of Birth is considered. The older candidate placed better rank in NEET and will be given preference for NEET admissions.

NEET 2018 Cut off marks:

NEET UG Cutoff score for various categories under 15% All India Quota seats is provided below:
Category Cut off percentile
Cut off score
Number of candidates
qualified in NEET UG
General 50th percentile 697 – 131 5,43,473
OBC 40th percentile 130 – 107 47,382
SC 40th percentile 130 – 107 14,599
ST 40th percentile 130 – 107 6,018
Others PH 45th percentile 130 – 118 67
OBC PH 40th percentile 130 – 107 152
SC PH 40th percentile 130 – 107 38
ST PH 40th percentile 130 – 107 10

NEET Result 2018 - All India Rank:

As per NEET Result, the total marks obtained by candidates out of 720 will determine their rank in the final NEET merit list. Candidate who have higher NEET score, the higher will be the NEET rank. Following is the approximate range of All India Rank based on various mark range.
NEET Marks Range NEET Ranks Range
681-690 1-5
671-680 6-9
661-670 10-16
651-660 17-31
641-650 32-65
631-640 66-80
621-630 81-92
611-620 92-160
601-610 172-246
591-600 272-363
581-590 388-531
571-580 547-781
561-570 813-1,132
551-560 1,200-1,616
541-550 1,728-2,308
531-540 2,441-3,298
521-530 3,503-4,473
511-520 4,708-5,972
501-510 6,257-7,696
491-500 8,032-9,570
481-490 9,958-11,594
471-480 11,993-13,926
461-470 14,358-16,342
451-460 16,795-18,977
441-450 19,548-22,114
431-440 22,756-25,447
421-430 26,179-29,211
411-420 29,973-33,388
401-410 33,794-37,770
391-400 38,671-42,664
381-390 43,751-48,025
371-380 49,140-53,692
361-370 54886-60,006
351-360 61,286-66,854
341-350 68,197-73,907
331-340 81,674-75,426
321-330 82,464-89,970
311-320 91,617-98,710
301-310 1,00,625-1,08,255
291-300 1,09,875-1,18,148
281-290 1,20,177-1,28,941
271-280 1,31,185-1,40,219
261-270 1,42,586-1,52,352
251-260 1,54,842-1,65,169
241-250 1,68,075-1,78,876
231-240 181,431-1,94,813
221-230 1,96,386-2,10,183
211-220 2,12,003-2,25,343
201-210 2,28,954-2,42,788
191-200 2,46,509-2,61,169
181-190 2,65,271-2,80,794
171-180 2,85,115-3,01,394
161-170 3,06,153-3,23,646
151-160 3,28,574-3,46,874
141-150 3,52,020-3,71,811
131-140 3,77,662-3,98,105
120-130 4,04,017-4,28,905

Documents required during Joining in allotted Medical/ Dental College as per NEET Result:

At the time of joining in allotted Medical / Dental College, Candidates must bring the below mentioned Original documents (along with attested photocopies of documents) for admission to under-graduate medical courses under 15% All-India Quota seats.

(i) Admit Cards of Exam issued by Central Board of Secondary
Education (CBSE).
(ii) Result/ Rank letter issued by CBSE.
(iii) Date of Birth Certificate (if Metric Certificate does not bear the same)
(iv) Class 10th Certificate
(v) Class 10+2 Certificate
(vi) Class 10+2 Marksheet
(vii) Eight (8) Passport size photograph same as affixed on the application form.
(viii) Provisional allotment letter generated on-line.
(ix) Proof of identity.
(x) The Candidate should also bring the following certificate, if applicable:
(a) SC/ST Certificate issued by the competent authority and it should be in English or Hindi in language. Sub caste should be clearly mentioned in the certificate. Some of the States insist for English version of Caste Certificate. In case the certificate is in regional language the candidate should carry a Attested translated copy of the certificate in English/ hindi.
(b) OBC certificate issued by the competent authority. The subcaste should tally with the Central List of OBC. The OBC candidates should not belong to Creamy Layer to claim OBC reservation benefit.
(c) Orthopedic Physical Disability Certificate issued from a duly constituted and authorized Medical Boards.

NEET 2018 Official Questions with correct Answer:

Official questions of NEET 2018 Exam is updated in this page everyday. Make use of it to the fullest and succeed in your NEET 2018 exam.

Paper Code GG:-

1) Offsets are produced by
(1) Parthenocarpy
(2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Mitotic divisions
(4) Meiotic divisions

Answer:- (3) Mitotic divisions

2) The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Plant
(2) Virus
(3) Bacterium
(4) Fungus

Answer:- (3) Bacterium

3) Select the correct match
(1) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum and F. Stahl
(2) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon Jacques Monod
(3) Alfred Hershey and – TMV Martha Chase
(4) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer:- 2) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon Jacques Monod

4) Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(1) XO type sex : Grasshopper determination
(2) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(3) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(4) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

Answer:- (4) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

5) Select the correct statement
(1) Spliceosomes take part in translation
(2) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
(3) Punnett square was developed by a British scientist
(4) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’

Answer:- (3) Punnett square was developed by a British scientist

6) Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
(1) Oil content
(2) Sporopollenin
(3) Cellulosic intine
(4) Pollenkitt

Answer:- (2) Sporopollenin

7) Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
(1) Mango
(2) Papaya
(3) Jackfruit
(4) Bamboo species

Answer:- (4) Bamboo species

8) The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(3) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

Answer:- (2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

9) In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
(1) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
(2) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
(3) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
(4) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

Answer:- (2) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

10) Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
(1) λ phage
(2) pBR 322
(3) Ti plasmid
(4) Retrovirus

Answer:- (4) Retrovirus

11) Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
(1) Biodegradation
(2) Bioexploitation
(3) Biopiracy
(4) Bio-infringement

Answer:- (3) Biopiracy

12) A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
(1) Lerma Rojo
(2) Basmati
(3) Sharbati Sonora
(4) Co-667

Answer:- (2) Basmati

13) Select the correct match
(1) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(2) G. Mendel - Transformation
(3) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(4) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid

Answer:- (4) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid

14) Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
(1) It takes part in spindle formation
(2) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
(3) It is a membrane-bound structure
(4) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells

Answer:- (2) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

15) The Golgi complex participates in
(1) Respiration in bacteria
(2) Activation of amino acid
(3) Formation of secretory vesicles
(4) Fatty acid breakdown

Answer:- (3) Formation of secretory vesicles

16) Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
(2) Oxygen
(3) NADH
(4) ATP

Answer:- (3) NADH

17) Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
(1) Nostoc
(2) Oscillatoria
(3) Mycobacterium
(4) Saccharomyces

Answer:- (4) Saccharomyces

18) Stomatal movement is not affected by
(1) O2 concentration
(2) CO2 concentration
(3) Light
(4) Temperature

Answer:- (1) O2 concentration

19) The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are
(1) Carbonyl and phosphate
(2) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
(3) Carbonyl and methyl
(4) Hydroxyl and methyl

Answer:- (2) Carbonyl and hydroxyl

20) The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) Diakinesis
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Pachytene

Answer:- (3) Diplotene

21) Stomata in grass leaf are
(1) Rectangular
(2) Barrel shaped
(3) Kidney shaped
(4) Dumb-bell shaped

Answer:- (4) Dumb-bell shaped

22) Which one is wrongly matched?
(1) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(2) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(3) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(4) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

Answer:- (4) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

23) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I
a. Herbarium
b. Key
c. Museum
d. Catalogue
Column II
(i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals
(ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification
(iii) Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept
(iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

a b c d
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Answer:- (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

24) Winged pollen grains are present in
(1) Mango
(2) Pinus
(3) Cycas
(4) Mustard

Answer:- (2) Pinus

25) After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
(1) Agaricus
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Alternaria
(4) Neurospora

Answer:- (1) Agaricus

26) Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
(1) Cycas
(2) Chara
(3) Nostoc
(4) Green sulphur bacteria

Answer:- (4) Green sulphur bacteria

27) Double fertilization is
(1) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(2) Syngamy and triple fusion
3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
(4) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

Answer:- (2) Syngamy and triple fusion

28) Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?
(1) Potassium
(2) Calcium
(3) Sodium
(4) Magnesium

Answer:- (1) Potassium

29) Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
(1) Banana
(2) Viola
(3) Yucca
(4) Hydrilla

Answer:- (3) Yucca

30) Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(1) –196°C
(2) –160°C
(3) –80°C
(4) –120°C

Answer:- (1) –196°C

31) What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
(1) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
(2) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
(3) It functions as an electron carrier.
(4) It functions as an enzyme.

Answer:- (3) It functions as an electron carrier.

32) In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
(1) Free element
(2) Both ferric and ferrous
(3) Ferrous
(4) Ferric

Answer:- (4) Ferric

33) Niche is
(1) the range of temperature that the organism needs to live
(2) the functional role played by the organism where it lives
(3) the physical space where an organism lives
(4) all the biological factors in the organism's environment

Answer:- (2) the functional role played by the organism where it lives

34) Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(1) SO2
(2) O3
(3) CO2
(4) CO

Answer:- (2) O3
35) Natality refers to

(1) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(2) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(3) Birth rate
(4) Death rate

Answer:- (3) Birth rate

36) World Ozone Day is celebrated on

(1) 16th September
(2) 22nd April
(3) 21st April
(4) 5th June

Answer:- (1) 16th September

37) What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 60 g
Primary producer : 10 g

(1) Upright pyramid of numbers
(2) Upright pyramid of biomass
(3) Pyramid of energy
(4) Inverted pyramid of biomass

Answer:- (4) Inverted pyramid of biomass

38) In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?

(1) Fe
(2) Oxygen
(3) Cl
(4) Carbon

Answer:- (3) Cl

39) Casparian strips occur in

(1) Cortex
(2) Endodermis
(3) Pericycle
(4) Epidermis

Answer:- (2) Endodermis

40) Plants having little or no secondary growth are

(1) Conifers
(2) Cycads
(3) Deciduous angiosperms
(4) Grasses

Answer:- (4) Grasses

41) Pneumatophores occur in

(1) Carnivorous plants
(2) Submerged hydrophytes
(3) Free-floating hydrophytes
(4) Halophytes

Answer:- (4) Halophytes

42) Sweet potato is a modified

(1) Tap root
(2) Rhizome
(3) Adventitious root
(4) Stem

Answer:- (3) Adventitious root

43) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(2) Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous
(4) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms

Answer:- (4) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms

44) Select the wrong statement :

(1) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans
(2) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(3) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(4) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae

Answer:- (1) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans

45) Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

(1) Phellogen
(2) Axillary meristems
(3) Vascular cambium
(4) Apical meristems

Answer:- (3) Vascular cambium

46) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in glomeruli
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of nephritis glucose in urine

a b c d

(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Answer:- (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

47) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
(Function) (Part of Excretory system)
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
b. Concentration ii. Ureter of urine
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder urine
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian urine corpuscle
v. Proximal convoluted tubule

a b c d

(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Answer:- (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

48) Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
(1) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(2) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(3) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(4) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

Answer:- (2) Eye of octopus, bat and man

49) Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
(1) Alzheimer's disease
(2) Vitiligo
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Psoriasis

Answer:- (1) Alzheimer's disease

50) Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Multiple allele
d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance

(1) b, d and e
(2) a, c and e
(3) a, b and c
(4) b, c and e

Answer:- (3) a, b and c

51) Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(1) Vitamin B12
(2) Vitamin E
(3) Vitamin A
(4) Vitamin D

Answer:- (1) Vitamin B12

52) The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Analogy
(4) Homology

Answer:- (4) Homology

53) In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
(1) Ringworm disease
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Elephantiasis

Answer:- (4) Elephantiasis

54) Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
(1) Moth
(2) Starfish
(3) Tunicate
(4) Earthworm

Answer:- (4) Earthworm

55) Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
(1) Camelus
(2) Psittacula
(3) Chelone
(4) Macropus

Answer:- (3) Chelone

56) Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
(1) Forewings with darker tegmina
(2) Presence of anal cerci
(3) Presence of caudal styles
(4) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment

Answer:- (3) Presence of caudal styles

57) Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Diatoms
(4) Dinoflagellates

Answer:- (3) Diatoms

58) Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(1) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(2) having two types of nuclei
(3) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
(4) using flagella for locomotion

Answer:- (2) having two types of nuclei

59) Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system
(1) Aves
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Reptilia
(4) Amphibia

Answer:- (1) Aves

60) Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(2) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
(3) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin

Answer:- (1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

61) The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
(1) is an IUD.
(2) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(3) increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
(4) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

Answer:- (4) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

62) The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
(1) mesoderm and trophoblast
(2) ectoderm and endoderm
(3) endoderm and mesoderm
(4) ectoderm and mesoderm

Answer:- (4) ectoderm and mesoderm

63) The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

Answer:- (2)

64) In a growing population of a country,
(1) reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
(2) pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
(3) reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals

Answer:- (4)

65) Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”?
(1) Roots
(2) Leaves
(3) Latex
(4) Flowers

Answer:- (3) Latex

66) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column-I Column-II
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient enrichment
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal

a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) i ii iv iii
(3) i iii iv ii
(4) ii i iii iv

Answer:- (1) iii iv i ii

67) Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
(1) Parasitism
(2) Amensalism
(3) Mutualism
(4) Commensalism

Answer:- (2) Amensalism

68) All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ conservation’ except
(1) Botanical gardens
(2) Seed banks
(3) Sacred groves
(4) Wildlife safari parks

Answer:- (3) Sacred groves

69) Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
(1) Goblet cells
(2) Parietal cells
(3) Mucous cells
(4) Chief cells

Answer:- (2) Parietal cells

70) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
c. Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism

a b c
(1) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer:- (2) (ii) (iii) (i)

71) Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
(1) Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
(2) Prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
(3) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(4) Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.

Answer:- (4)

72) Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
(1) Botulism
(2) Emphysema
(3) Silicosis
(4) Anthracis

Answer:- (3) Silicosis

73) Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
(1) Estradiol
(2) Estriol
(3) Ecdysone
(4) Epinephrine

Answer:- (4) Epinephrine

74) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its functions?
(1) Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
(2) Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
(3) Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
(4) Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

Answer:- (3)

75) Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
(1) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(2) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(3) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(4) Aldosterone and Prolactin

Answer:- (1) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

76) The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(1) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(2) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
(3) ligaments attached to the iris
(4) ligaments attached to the ciliary body

Answer:- (4) ligaments attached to the ciliary body

77) Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
(1) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(2) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(3) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(4) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

Answer:- (4)

78) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle

a b c
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer:- (4) (iii) (i) (ii)

79) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
b. Inspiratory Reserve volume ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
c. Expiratory Reserve volume iii. 500 – 550 mL
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL

a b c d
(1) i iv ii iii
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iii ii i iv

Answer:- (3) iii i iv ii

80) Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(1) Nucleic acids and SER
(2) Free ribosomes and RER
(3) DNA and RNA
(4) Proteins and lipids

Answer:- (2) Free ribosomes and RER

81) Which of these statements is incorrect?
(1) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms
(2) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
(3) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(4) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix

Answer:- (2)

82) Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
(1) Plastidome
(2) Nucleosome
(3) Polyhedral bodies
(4) Polysome

Answer:- (4) Polysome

83) Which of the following terms describe human dentition?
(1) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(2) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont

Answer:- (3)Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

84) Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
(1) Cleavage of signal peptide
(2) Phospholipid synthesis
(3) Protein glycosylation
(4) Protein folding

Answer:- (2)Phospholipid synthesis

85. Select the incorrect match :
(1) Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes
(2) Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians
(3) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(4) Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalent

Answer: (2) Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians

86. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?


87. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
(1) Phenotypic variations
(2) Minor mutations
(3) Saltation
(4) Multiple step mutations

Answer: (3)

88. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
olumn I Column II
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of endometrial lining
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase

a b c
(1) ii iii i
(2) iii i ii
(3) i iii ii
(4) iii ii i

Answer: (1)

89. All of the following are part of an operon except
(1) an enhancer
(2) a promoter
3) structural genes
(4) an operator

Answer: (1)

90) A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
(1) Only grandchildren
(2) Both sons and daughters
(3) Only sons
(4) Only daughters

Answer: (2)

91. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27ºC two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27ºC is
(1) 350 m/s
(2) 300 m/s
(3) 339 m/s
(4) 330 m/s

Answer: (3) 339 m/s

92. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is
(1) Proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates
(2) Inversely proportional to the distance between the plates
(3) Linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
(4) Independent of the distance between the plate

Answer: (4)

93. An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(1) 10 times greater
(2) Equal
(3) 5 times greater
(4) Smaller

Answer: (4)

94. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is
(1) 2 s
(2) 1 s
(3) π s
(4) 2Ï€ s

Answer: (3)

95. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(1) 250 Ω
(2) 500 Ω
(3) 25 Ω
(4) 40 Ω

Answer: (1)

96. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down
by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

(1) 14.76 A
(2) 11.32 A
(3) 5.98 A
(4) 7.14 A

Answer: (2)

97. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of
the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

(1) The lattice structure of the material of the rod
(2) The induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field
(3) The magnetic field
(4) The current source

Answer: (2)

98. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 µF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

(1) 2.74 W
(2) 1.13 W
(3) 0.43 W
(4) 0.79 W

Answer: (4)

99. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the
image will be

(1) 30 cm towards the mirror
(2) 36 cm towards the mirror
(3) 36 cm away from the mirror
(4) 30 cm away from the mirror

Answer: (3)

100. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity V=Vi. The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating the magnetic field of the em wave will be along

(1) –y direction
(2) –x direction
(3) +z direction
(4) –z direction

Answer: (3)

101. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

(1) 1.389 H
(2) 13.89 H
(3) 138.88 H
(4) 0.138 H

Answer: (2)

102. The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is
(1) 30°
(2) Zero
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

Answer: (3)

103. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the
hydrogen atom, is
(1) 2 : –1
(2) 1 : –2
(3) 1 : –1
(4) 1 : 1

Answer: (3)

104. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v = v0î(v0 > 0) enters an electric field E = -E0î (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its deBroglie wavelength at time t is

Answer: (a)

105. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

(1) 30
(2) 15
(3) 10
(4) 20

Answer - (4)

106. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 2

Answer - (4)

107. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi is 20V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The values of IB, IC and β are given by :-

Answer - (4)

108. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating

(1) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(2) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of p-n junction
(3) Affects only forward resistance
(4) Affects only reverse resistance

Answer - (2)

109. In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as :-

Answer - (2)

110. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k
Ω is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

(1) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
(2) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
(3) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(4) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

Answer - (3)

111.A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I.
The value of 'n' is

(1) 20
(2) 9
(3) 11
(4) 10

Answer: (4)

112. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?

Answer: (1)

113. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

(1) 6.25%
(2) 12.5%
(3) 20%
(4) 26.8%

Answer: (4)

114. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

(1) 1/3
(2) 2/7
(3) 2/3
(4) 2/5

Answer: (4)

115. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

(1) 12.5 cm
(2) 16 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 13.2 cm

Answer: (4)

116. At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth's atmosphere? (Given: Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)

(1) 5.016 × 104 K
(2) 1.254 × 104 K
(3) 8.360 × 104 K
(4) 2.508 × 104 K

Answer: (3)

117. The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength 3/4 λ0 the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is

(1) 256/81
(2) 81/256
(3) 4/3
(4) 3/4

Answer: (1)

118. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by Δ/ on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the
second wire by the same amount?
(1) 4 F
(2) F
(3) 6 F
(4) 9 F

Answer: (4)

119. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

(1) r5
(2) r4
(3) r2
(4) r3

Answer: (1)

120. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm-2) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

(1) 42.2 J
(2) 84.5 J
(3) 208.7 J
(4) 104.3 J

Answer: (3)

121) The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then B

Answer: (2)

122) A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is

(1) 10 : 7
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 5 : 7
(4) 7 : 10

Answer: (3)

123) A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?

(1) Rotational kinetic energy
(2) Angular momentum
(3) Moment of inertia
(4) Angular velocity

Answer: (2)

124) If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct?

(1) Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease
(2) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
(3) Walking on the ground would become more difficult
(4) Raindrops will fall faster

Answer: (2)

125) A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

(1) 5/4 D
(2) 3/2 D
(3) 7/5 D
(4) D

Answer: (1)

126) Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

(1) WB > WA > WC
(2) WA > WC > WB
(3) WA > WB > WC
(4) WC > WB > WA

Answer: (4)

127) A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

(1) 0.8
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.5

Answer: (3)

128) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Frictional force opposes the relative motion.
(2) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.
(3) Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.
(4) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.

Answer: (2)



130) A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field E. Due to the force q E , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

(1) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
(2) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
(3) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
(4) 2 m/s, 4 m/s

Answer: (C)

131) A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is :-

Answer: (3)

132) A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25
divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

(1) 0.053 cm
(2) 0.529 cm
(3) 0.525 cm
(4) 0.521 cm

Answer: (2)

133) Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index 'µ'. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?

(1) i= sin-1 (1/ µ)
(2) i = tan-1 (1/ µ)
(3) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence
(4) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

Answer: (3)

134) In Young's double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

(1) 2.1 mm
(2) 1.7 mm
(3) 1.9 mm
(4) 1.8 mm

Answer: (3)

135) An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

(1) Large focal length and large diameter
(2) Small focal length and small diameter
(3) Large focal length and small diameter
(4) Small focal length and large diameter

Answer: (1)

136) In which case is number of molecules of water maximum?

(1) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
(2) 10-3 mol of water
(3) 0.18 g of water
(4) 18 mL of water

Answer: (4)

137) Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below:

Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

(1) Br2
(2) HBrO
(3) BrO-4
(4) BrO-3

Answer: (2)

138) Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic character is

(1) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(2) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(3) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(4) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2

Answer: (4)

139) The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that

(1) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
(2) The rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a secondorder reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations
(3) The half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]0
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations

Answer: (3)

140) The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is

(1) Ionization isomerism
(2) Linkage isomerism
(3) Coordination isomerism
(4) Geometrical isomerism

Answer: (4)

141) Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?

(1) MnO4-
(2) MnO42-
(3) Cr2 O72-
(4) CrO42-

Answer: (2)

142) The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are

(1) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(4) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic

Answer: (3)

143) Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is

(1) Trinuclear
(2) Dinuclear
(3) Mononuclear
(4) Tetranuclear

Answer: (3)

144) Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code:
Column I Column II
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
v. 15 BM

a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) iii v i ii
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) iv v ii i

Answer: (4)

Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF6 3- ion?

(1) B
(2) In
(3) Al
(4) Ga

Answer: (1)

146) In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

Answer: (3)

147) The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

(1) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(2) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
(3) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(4) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl

Answer: (4)

148) Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?

(1) All but fluorine show positive oxidation states
(2) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy
(3) All are oxidizing agents
(4) All form monobasic oxyacids

Answer: (4)

149) Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?

(1) Mg
(2) Cu
(3) Zn
(4) Fe

Answer: (1)

150) The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

(1) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
(2) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

Answer: (2)

151) The electrophile involved in the below reaction is

1) dichloromethyl cation
2) dichlorocarbene (CCl2)
3) trichloromethyl anion
4) formyl cation

Answer: (2)

152) Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

(1) More extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(2) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(3) Formation of carboxylate ion
(4) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding

Answer: (2)

153) Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and Y are respectively

Answer: (2)
154. Which of the following molecules represents the order of
hybridisation sp2 , sp2 , sp, sp from left to right atoms?
(1) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(3) CH2 = CH – C Ξ CH
(4) HC Ξ C – C Ξ CH

Answer: (3)

155. Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable?

Answer: (1)

156. Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
(1) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(2) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(3) – NR2 < – OR < – F
(4) – NH2 < – OR < – F

Answer: (4)

157) Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is

1) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(2) They contain strong covalents bonds in their polymer chains.
(3) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.
(4) They contain covalent bonds between various linear pol

Answer: (2)

Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because
(1) In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.
(2) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.
(3) In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.
(4) Inspite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.

Answer: (2)

159) The difference between amylose and amylopectin is

(1) Amylopectin have 1→ 4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkage
(2) Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose
(3) Amylose have 1→ 4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkage
(4) Amylopectin have 1→ 4 α-linkage and 1→6 β- linkage

Answer: (4)

A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4.
The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP

(1) 2.8
(2) 4.4
(3) 3.0
(4) 1.4

Answer: (1)

161) Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

(1) BaO
(2) CaO
(3) BeO
(4) MgO

Answer: (3)

162) For the redox reaction

The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are
(1) 2 16 5
(2) 5 16 2
(3) 2 5 16
(4) 16 5 2

Answer: (3)

164) When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction (

1) Is tripled
(2) Remains unchanged
(3) Is doubled
(4) Is halved

Answer: (3)

165) The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1 .
The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be

(1) 800 kJ mol–1
(2) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 200 kJ mol–1

Answer: (1)

166) The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to
(1) Electric field present between the gas molecules
(2) Forces of attraction between the gas molecules
(3) Volume of the gas mo
lecules (4) Density of the gas molecules

Answer: (2)

167) On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion

(1) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion
(2) The sign of charge on the ion alone
(3) Size of the ion alone
(4) The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

Answer: (1)

168. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?
(1) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion
(2) The sign of charge on the ion alone (3) Size of the ion alone (4) The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

CBSE Answer: (1)

169. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?
(1) O2
(2) CO2
(3) H2
(4) NH3

CBSE Answer: (4)

170. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1 )
(1) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L –2
(2) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L –2
(3) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L –2
(4) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L –2

Answer: (4)

171. Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion?

(1) Benzoic acid
(2) Glycine
(3) Acetanilide
(4) Aniline

Answer: (2)

172. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions: The product 'C' is
(1) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
(2) p-bromotoluene
(3) o-bromotoluene
(4) m-bromotoluene

Answer: (4)

173) Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?

(1) N2O
(2) NO
(3) NO2
(4) N2O5

Answer: (4)

174) The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

(1) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
(2) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
(3) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(4) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl

Answer: (2)

175) Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is

(1) CH3 – CH3
(2) CH4
(3) CH2 = CH2
(4) CH ≡ CH

Answer: (2)

176) Consider the following species : CN+ , CN–, NO and CN. Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

(1) CN+
(2) CN
(3) CN–
(4) NO

Answer: (3)

177) Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this compound is

(1) Mg2X
(2) Mg3X2
(3) MgX2
(4) Mg2X3

Answer: (2)

178) Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

Answer: (1)

179) Which is the incorrect statement?

(1) Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky's defect.
(2) NaCl(s) insulator,silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal.
(3) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and anions are almost equal.
(4) FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal

Answer: (3)

180) The species, having bond angles of 120° is

(1) ClF3
(2) NCl3
(3) BCl3
(4) PH3

Answer: (3)

Paper Code B:-

1) Which of the following is a sink for CO?
a) Micro organisms present in the soil
b) Oceans
c) Plants
d) Haemoglobin

Answer:- a) Micro organisms present in the soil

2) The element Z=114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and electronic configuration?
a) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2
b) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p4
c) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6
d) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p5

Answer:- a) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p2

3) For a given reaction, DeltaH = 35.5 kJ mol-1 and DeltaS = 83.6 JK-1 mol-1. The reaction is spontaneous at: (Assume that DeltaH and DeltaS do not vary with temperature)
a) T > 425 K
b) all temperatures
c) T > 298 K
d) T < 425 K

Answer:- a) T > 425 K

4) Identify A and predict the type of reaction


5) Which of the following is dependent on temperature?
a) Molarity
b) Mole fraction
c) Weight percentage
d) Molality

Answer:- a) Molarity
Explanation:- Molarity includes volume of solution which can change with change in temperature.

6) With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
a) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
b) Both bond angle and bond length change
c) Both bond angles and bond length remains same
d) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

Answer:- c) Both bond angles and bond length remains same.
Explanation:- There is no change in bond angles and bond lengths in the conformations of ethane. There is only change in dihedral angle.

7) Name the gas that can readily decolourises acidified KMnO4 solution:
a) SO2
b) NO2
c) P2O5
d) CO2

Answer:- a) SO2
Explanation:- SO2 is readily decolourises acidified KMnO4.

8) It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that
a) Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing
b) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing
c) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
d) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising

Answer:- d) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
Explanation:- Inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding on moving down the group in heavier p-block elements is called inert pair effect.
As a result, Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV)
Sn(IV) is more stable than Sn(II)
-> Pb(IV) is easily reduced to Pb(II)
-> Pb(IV) is oxidising agent
Sn(II) is easily oxidised to Sn(IV)
-> Sn(II) is reducing agent

9) Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 -> 2XY is given below:
i) X2 -> X + X (fast)
ii) X + Y2 ⇔ XY + Y (slow)
iii) X + Y -> XY (fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be

a) 2
b) 0
c) 1.5
d) 1

Answer:- c) 1.5

10) The equilibrium constants of the following are
N2 + 3H2 ⇔ 2NH3 K1
N2 + O2 ⇔ 2NO K2
H2 + (1/2)O2 -> H2O 2 K3
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction
2NH3 + (5/2)O2 ⇔ 2NO + 3H2O, will be

a) K2 K33 /K1
b) K2 K3 /K1
c) K23 K3 /K1
d) K1 K33 /K2

Answer:- a) K2 K33 /K1

11) Which one is the wrong statement?
a) The uncertainty principle is DeltaE X Deltat geq h/4pi
b) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry and more balanced arrangement
c) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms
d) De-Broglie's wavelength is given by lambda = h/mv, where m = mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle

Answer:- c)
Explanation:- Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of hydrogen like atoms is equal.

12) Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium
b) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions
c) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme
d) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction

Answer:- a)
Explanation:- A catalyst decreases activation energies of both the forward and backward reaction by same amount, therefore, it speeds up both forward and backward reaction by same rate.
Equilibrium constant is therefore not affected by catalyst at a given temperature.

13) HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I– ions the pair of species formed is
a) HgI2, I–
b) HgI42-, I3–
c) Hg2I2, I–
d) HgI2, I3–

Answer:- b)

14) The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is

a) III < I < II
b) III < II < I
c) II < I < III
d) II < III < I

Answer:- c) II < I < III

15) An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is
a) Grignard's reagent
b) Ferrocene
c) Cobaltocene
d) Ruthenocene

Answer:- a)Grignard's reagent
Explanation:- Grignard's reagent i.e., RMgX is sigma-bonded organometallic compound.

16) A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be
(Given that : SrCO3(s) ⇔ SrO(s) + CO2(g).
Kp = 1.6 atm)

a) 10 litre
b) 4 litre
c) 2 litre
d) 5 litre

Answer:- d) 5 litre

17) Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as
a) Antiseptic
b) Antipyretic
c) Antibiotic
d) Analgesic

Answer:- a) Antiseptic

18) Pick out the correct statement with respect [Mn(CN)6]3–
a) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
b) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
c) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
d) It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral

Answer:- b) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral

19) Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct code
Column I Column II
(a) XX'
(i) T-shape
(b) XX'3
(ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(c) XX'5
(iii) Linear
(d) XX'7
(iv) Square-pyramidal
(v) Tetrahedral

(a) (b) (c) (d)
a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
b) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer:- a)
Explanation:-- XX' ---> Linear
XX'3 ----> Example : CIF3 ----> T-shape
XX'5 ----> Example : BrF5 ----> Square pyramida
XX'7 ----> Example : IF7 ----> Pentagonal bipyramidal

20) The species, having bond angles of 120° is
a) CIF3
b) NCl3
c) BCl3
d) PH3

Answer:- c) BCl3

21) Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction

Answer:- c)

22) If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be
a) Halved
b) Tripled
c) Unchanged
d) Doubled

Answer:- c) Unchanged
Explanation:- Kf (molal depression constant) is a characteristic of solvent and is independent of molality.

23) The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces
a) Iodobenzene
b) Phenol
c) Benzene
d) Ethyl chlorides

Answer:- b) Phenol

24) In the electrochemical cell
Zn|ZnSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2? (Given, RT/F = 0.059)

a) E1 < E2
b) E1 > E2
c) E1 = E2 
eq E1
d) E1 = E2

Answer:- b) E1 > E2

25) A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10–2 second–1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?
a) 138.6 second
b) 346.5 second
c) 693.0 second
d) 238.6 second

Answer:- a) 138.6 second

26) Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
a) O2, NO+
b) CN–, CO
c) N2, O2-
d) CO, NO

Answer:- b) CN–, CO

27) In which pair of ions both the species contain S – S bond?
a) S4O62–, S2O32-
b) S2O72–, S2O82–
c) S4O62–, S2O72–
d) S2O72–, S2O32–

Answer:- a) S4O62–, S2O32-

28) Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 10–4 mol L–1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is
a) 2.66 × 10–12
b) 4.5 × 10–11
c) 5.3 × 10–12
d) 2.42 × 10–8

Answer:- c) 5.3 × 10–12

29) Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field?
a) K
b) Rb
c) Li
d) Na

Answer:- c) Li

30) A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy deltaU of the gas in joules will be
a) –500 J
b) –505 J
c) +505 J
d) 1136.25 J

Answer:- b) –505 J

31) The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to
a) Actinoid contraction
b) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
c) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
d) The radioactive nature of actinoids

Answer:- b)

32) The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is
a) Chromatography
b) Crystallisation
c) Steam distillation
d) Sublimation

Answer:- c) Steam distillation
Explanation:- Steam distillation is the most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols as there is intramolecular H-bonds in ortho nitrophenol.

33) The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes: CoCl3. 6NH3. CoCl3. 5NH3. CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is
a) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
b) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
c) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
d) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl

Answer:- b)

34) Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co3+ is
a) [Co(H2O)6] 3+, [Co(en)3] 3+, [Co(NH3) 6] 3+
b) [Co(H2O)6] 3+, [Co(NH3)6] 3+, [Co(en)3] 3+
c) [Co(NH3)6] 3+, [Co(en)3] 3+, [Co(H2O)6] 3+
d) [Co(en)3] 3+, [Co(NH3) 6] 3+, [Co(H2O)6] 3+

Answer:- d)

35) Which one is the most acidic compound?

Answer:- 3)

36) Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?
a) Tel2, XeF2
b) IBr2- , XeF2
c) IF3, XeF2
d) BeCl2, XeF2

Answer:- b)

37) Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine?
a) Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
b) Stephens reaction
c) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
d) Carbylamine reaction

Answer:- a)

38) Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?

Answer:- a)

39) Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting
c) Denaturation makes the proteins more active
d) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human body

Answer:- c)

40) Which one is the correct order of acidity?
a) CH equiv CH > CH3 – C equiv CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH3
b) CH equiv CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C equiv CH > CH3 – CH3
c) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C equiv CH > CH equiv CH
d) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH = CH2 > CH3 – C equiv CH > CH equiv CH

Answer:- a)

41) Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN– ion. Silver is later recovered by
a) Distillation
b) Zone refining
c) Displacement with Zn
d) Liquation

Answer:- c)

42) The correct statement regarding electrophile is
a) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
b) Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
c) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
d) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Answer:- c)

43) Consider the reactions:
Identify A, X, Y and Z
a) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, Z-Semicarbazide
b) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone
c) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z-Hydrazone
d) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetateion, Z-hydrazine

Answer:- b)

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NEET NEET Exam 2023- FAQ

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NEET NEET Exam will happen on the respective date as mentioned in the official NEET Exam Schedule PDF. Candidates should pen down the NEET Exam Dates and prepare for the NEET NEET Exam accordingly. Candidates should report on time for the NEET Exam.
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3. What is the exam duration for the NEET NEET Written Exam?
NEET NEET Written Exam consists of two papers. The exam duration for Paper I and Paper II is 2 hours and the number of questions will be 100. Candidates should note that there will be negative marking for each wrong answer.
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