NEET 2019 UG, PG Application, Schedule, Exam Pattern, Syllabus

(i) All India Quota (AIQ) Seats - 15%
(ii) State Government Quota Seats - 85%
(iii) State/ Management/ NRI Quota Seats in Private Medical/Dental Colleges or any Private/ Deemed University
(iv) Central Pool Quota Seats

Category-wise Seat Reservation Criteria under NEET UG

Category	Percentage of Reservation
Scheduled Category	15%
Scheduled Tribes	7.5%
OBC & Non-Creamy Layer	27%
Physically Handicapped (PH)	3% (On Horizontal basis)

NEET PG seats are classified in the following categories:

(i) All India Quota Seats - 50% (all states except Andhra Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Telangana)
(ii) State Government Quota Seats (including the states of Andhra Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Telangana)
(iii) State/ Management/NRI Quota Seats in Private Medical/Dental Colleges or any Private/ Deemed University
(iv) MD/MS/PG Diploma courses at Armed Forces Medical Services Institutions
(v) DNB Broad specialty courses

Colleges/Universities Not Accepting NEET 2019 Score:

Colleges/Universities not accepting NEET UG score for Under Graduate Programs are mentioned below

1) Offsets are produced by
(1) Parthenocarpy
(2) Parthenogenesis
(3) Mitotic divisions
(4) Meiotic divisions

Answer:- (3) Mitotic divisions

2) The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Plant
(2) Virus
(3) Bacterium
(4) Fungus

Answer:- (3) Bacterium

3) Select the correct match
(1) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum and F. Stahl
(2) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon Jacques Monod
(3) Alfred Hershey and – TMV Martha Chase
(4) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer:- 2) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon Jacques Monod

4) Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
(1) XO type sex : Grasshopper determination
(2) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(3) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(4) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

Answer:- (4) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

5) Select the correct statement
(1) Spliceosomes take part in translation
(2) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
(3) Punnett square was developed by a British scientist
(4) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’

Answer:- (3) Punnett square was developed by a British scientist

6) Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
(1) Oil content
(2) Sporopollenin
(3) Cellulosic intine
(4) Pollenkitt

Answer:- (2) Sporopollenin

7) Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
(1) Mango
(2) Papaya
(3) Jackfruit
(4) Bamboo species

Answer:- (4) Bamboo species

8) The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(1) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(3) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

Answer:- (2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

9) In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
(1) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
(2) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
(3) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
(4) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

Answer:- (2) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

10) Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
(1) λ phage
(2) pBR 322
(3) Ti plasmid
(4) Retrovirus

Answer:- (4) Retrovirus

11) Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
(1) Biodegradation
(2) Bioexploitation
(3) Biopiracy
(4) Bio-infringement

Answer:- (3) Biopiracy

12) A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
(1) Lerma Rojo
(2) Basmati
(3) Sharbati Sonora
(4) Co-667

Answer:- (2) Basmati

13) Select the correct match
(1) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(2) G. Mendel - Transformation
(3) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(4) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid

Answer:- (4) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid

14) Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
(1) It takes part in spindle formation
(2) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis
(3) It is a membrane-bound structure
(4) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells

Answer:- (2) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

15) The Golgi complex participates in
(1) Respiration in bacteria
(2) Activation of amino acid
(3) Formation of secretory vesicles
(4) Fatty acid breakdown

Answer:- (3) Formation of secretory vesicles

16) Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
(1) NADPH
(2) Oxygen
(3) NADH
(4) ATP

Answer:- (3) NADH

17) Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
(1) Nostoc
(2) Oscillatoria
(3) Mycobacterium
(4) Saccharomyces

Answer:- (4) Saccharomyces

18) Stomatal movement is not affected by
(1) O₂ concentration
(2) CO₂ concentration
(3) Light
(4) Temperature

Answer:- (1) O₂ concentration

19) The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are
(1) Carbonyl and phosphate
(2) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
(3) Carbonyl and methyl
(4) Hydroxyl and methyl

Answer:- (2) Carbonyl and hydroxyl

20) The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) Diakinesis
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Pachytene

Answer:- (3) Diplotene

21) Stomata in grass leaf are
(1) Rectangular
(2) Barrel shaped
(3) Kidney shaped
(4) Dumb-bell shaped

Answer:- (4) Dumb-bell shaped

22) Which one is wrongly matched?
(1) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(2) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(3) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(4) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

Answer:- (4) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

23) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I
a. Herbarium
b. Key
c. Museum
d. Catalogue
Column II
(i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals
(ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification
(iii) Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept
(iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

a b c d
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Answer:- (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

24) Winged pollen grains are present in
(1) Mango
(2) Pinus
(3) Cycas
(4) Mustard

Answer:- (2) Pinus

25) After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
(1) Agaricus
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Alternaria
(4) Neurospora

Answer:- (1) Agaricus

26) Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
(1) Cycas
(2) Chara
(3) Nostoc
(4) Green sulphur bacteria

Answer:- (4) Green sulphur bacteria

27) Double fertilization is
(1) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(2) Syngamy and triple fusion
3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei
(4) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

Answer:- (2) Syngamy and triple fusion

28) Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?
(1) Potassium
(2) Calcium
(3) Sodium
(4) Magnesium

Answer:- (1) Potassium

29) Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
(1) Banana
(2) Viola
(3) Yucca
(4) Hydrilla

Answer:- (3) Yucca

30) Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(1) –196°C
(2) –160°C
(3) –80°C
(4) –120°C

Answer:- (1) –196°C

31) What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
(1) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
(2) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
(3) It functions as an electron carrier.
(4) It functions as an enzyme.

Answer:- (3) It functions as an electron carrier.

32) In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?
(1) Free element
(2) Both ferric and ferrous
(3) Ferrous
(4) Ferric

Answer:- (4) Ferric

33) Niche is
(1) the range of temperature that the organism needs to live
(2) the functional role played by the organism where it lives
(3) the physical space where an organism lives
(4) all the biological factors in the organism's environment

Answer:- (2) the functional role played by the organism where it lives

34) Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
(1) SO₂
(2) O₃
(3) CO₂
(4) CO

Answer:- (2) O_{3
35) Natality refers to
(1) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(2) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(3) Birth rate
(4) Death rate}

Answer:- <sub>(3) Birth rate

36) World Ozone Day is celebrated on
(1) 16th September
(2) 22nd April
(3) 21st April
(4) 5th June</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(1) 16th September

37) What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 60 g
Primary producer : 10 g
(1) Upright pyramid of numbers
(2) Upright pyramid of biomass
(3) Pyramid of energy
(4) Inverted pyramid of biomass</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(4) Inverted pyramid of biomass

38) In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
(1) Fe
(2) Oxygen
(3) Cl
(4) Carbon</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(3) Cl

39) Casparian strips occur in
(1) Cortex
(2) Endodermis
(3) Pericycle
(4) Epidermis</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(2) Endodermis

40) Plants having little or no secondary growth are
(1) Conifers
(2) Cycads
(3) Deciduous angiosperms
(4) Grasses</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(4) Grasses

41) Pneumatophores occur in
(1) Carnivorous plants
(2) Submerged hydrophytes
(3) Free-floating hydrophytes
(4) Halophytes</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(4) Halophytes

42) Sweet potato is a modified
(1) Tap root
(2) Rhizome
(3) Adventitious root
(4) Stem</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(3) Adventitious root

43) Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(2) Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous
(4) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(4) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms

44) Select the wrong statement :
(1) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans
(2) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(3) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
(4) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(1) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans

45) Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by
(1) Phellogen
(2) Axillary meristems
(3) Vascular cambium
(4) Apical meristems</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(3) Vascular cambium

46) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in glomeruli
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of nephritis glucose in urine

a b c d
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)</sub>

Answer:- <sub>(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

47) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
(Function) (Part of Excretory system)
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
b. Concentration ii. Ureter of urine
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder urine
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian urine corpuscle
v. Proximal convoluted tubule
a b c d
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)</sub>

Answer:- (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

48) Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
(1) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(2) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(3) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(4) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

Answer:- (2) Eye of octopus, bat and man

49) Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
(1) Alzheimer's disease
(2) Vitiligo
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Psoriasis

Answer:- (1) Alzheimer's disease

50) Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Multiple allele
d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance
(1) b, d and e
(2) a, c and e
(3) a, b and c
(4) b, c and e

Answer:- (3) a, b and c

51) Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(1) Vitamin B12
(2) Vitamin E
(3) Vitamin A
(4) Vitamin D

Answer:- (1) Vitamin B12

52) The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Analogy
(4) Homology

Answer:- (4) Homology

53) In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
(1) Ringworm disease
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Elephantiasis

Answer:- (4) Elephantiasis

54) Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
(1) Moth
(2) Starfish
(3) Tunicate
(4) Earthworm

Answer:- (4) Earthworm

55) Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
(1) Camelus
(2) Psittacula
(3) Chelone
(4) Macropus

Answer:- (3) Chelone

56) Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
(1) Forewings with darker tegmina
(2) Presence of anal cerci
(3) Presence of caudal styles
(4) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment

Answer:- (3) Presence of caudal styles

57) Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Diatoms
(4) Dinoflagellates

Answer:- (3) Diatoms

58) Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(1) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(2) having two types of nuclei
(3) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
(4) using flagella for locomotion

Answer:- (2) having two types of nuclei

59) Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system
(1) Aves
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Reptilia
(4) Amphibia

Answer:- (1) Aves

60) Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(2) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
(3) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin

Answer:- (1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

61) The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
(1) is an IUD.
(2) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(3) increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
(4) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

Answer:- (4) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

62) The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
(1) mesoderm and trophoblast
(2) ectoderm and endoderm
(3) endoderm and mesoderm
(4) ectoderm and mesoderm

Answer:- (4) ectoderm and mesoderm

63) The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

Answer:- (2)

64) In a growing population of a country,
(1) reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
(2) pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
(3) reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals

Answer:- (4)

65) Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”?
(1) Roots
(2) Leaves
(3) Latex
(4) Flowers

Answer:- (3) Latex

66) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column-I Column-II
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient enrichment
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal

a b c d
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) i ii iv iii
(3) i iii iv ii
(4) ii i iii iv

Answer:- (1) iii iv i ii

67) Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
(1) Parasitism
(2) Amensalism
(3) Mutualism
(4) Commensalism

Answer:- (2) Amensalism

68) All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ conservation’ except
(1) Botanical gardens
(2) Seed banks
(3) Sacred groves
(4) Wildlife safari parks

Answer:- (3) Sacred groves

69) Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
(1) Goblet cells
(2) Parietal cells
(3) Mucous cells
(4) Chief cells

Answer:- (2) Parietal cells

70) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
c. Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism

a b c
(1) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i)

Answer:- (2) (ii) (iii) (i)

71) Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
(1) Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.
(2) Prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
(3) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(4) Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.

Answer:- (4)

72) Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
(1) Botulism
(2) Emphysema
(3) Silicosis
(4) Anthracis

Answer:- (3) Silicosis

73) Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
(1) Estradiol
(2) Estriol
(3) Ecdysone
(4) Epinephrine

Answer:- (4) Epinephrine

74) Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its functions?
(1) Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.
(2) Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.
(3) Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.
(4) Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

Answer:- (3)

75) Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
(1) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(2) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(3) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(4) Aldosterone and Prolactin

Answer:- (1) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

76) The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(1) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(2) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
(3) ligaments attached to the iris
(4) ligaments attached to the ciliary body

Answer:- (4) ligaments attached to the ciliary body

77) Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
(1) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(2) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(3) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(4) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

Answer:- (4)

78) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle

a b c
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer:- (4) (iii) (i) (ii)

79) Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
b. Inspiratory Reserve volume ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
c. Expiratory Reserve volume iii. 500 – 550 mL
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL

a b c d
(1) i iv ii iii
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iii ii i iv

Answer:- (3) iii i iv ii

80) Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(1) Nucleic acids and SER
(2) Free ribosomes and RER
(3) DNA and RNA
(4) Proteins and lipids

Answer:- (2) Free ribosomes and RER

81) Which of these statements is incorrect?
(1) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms
(2) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane
(3) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(4) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix

Answer:- (2)

82) Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
(1) Plastidome
(2) Nucleosome
(3) Polyhedral bodies
(4) Polysome

Answer:- (4) Polysome

83) Which of the following terms describe human dentition?
(1) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(2) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont

Answer:- (3)Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

84) Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
(1) Cleavage of signal peptide
(2) Phospholipid synthesis
(3) Protein glycosylation
(4) Protein folding

Answer:- (2)Phospholipid synthesis

85. Select the incorrect match :
(1) Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes
(2) Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians
(3) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(4) Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalent

Answer: (2) Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians

86. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
(1) ACCUAUGCGAU
(2) UCCAUAGCGUA
(3) UGGTUTCGCAT
(4) AGGUAUCGCAU

Answer: (4) AGGUAUCGCAU

87. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
(1) Phenotypic variations
(2) Minor mutations
(3) Saltation
(4) Multiple step mutations

Answer: (3)

88. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:
Column I Column II
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of endometrial lining
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase

a b c
(1) ii iii i
(2) iii i ii
(3) i iii ii
(4) iii ii i

Answer: (1)

89. All of the following are part of an operon except
(1) an enhancer
(2) a promoter
3) structural genes
(4) an operator

Answer: (1)

90) A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
(1) Only grandchildren
(2) Both sons and daughters
(3) Only sons
(4) Only daughters

Answer: (2)

91. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27ºC two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27ºC is
(1) 350 m/s
(2) 300 m/s
(3) 339 m/s
(4) 330 m/s

Answer: (3) 339 m/s

92. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is
(1) Proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates
(2) Inversely proportional to the distance between the plates
(3) Linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
(4) Independent of the distance between the plate

Answer: (4)

93. An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
(1) 10 times greater
(2) Equal
(3) 5 times greater
(4) Smaller

Answer: (4)

94. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is
(1) 2 s
(2) 1 s
(3) π s
(4) 2Ï€ s

Answer: (3)

95. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

(1) 250 Ω
(2) 500 Ω
(3) 25 Ω
(4) 40 Ω

Answer: (1)

96. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down
by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

(1) 14.76 A
(2) 11.32 A
(3) 5.98 A
(4) 7.14 A

Answer: (2)

97. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of
the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

(1) The lattice structure of the material of the rod
(2) The induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field
(3) The magnetic field
(4) The current source

Answer: (2)

98. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 µF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

(1) 2.74 W
(2) 1.13 W
(3) 0.43 W
(4) 0.79 W

Answer: (4)

99. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the
image will be

(1) 30 cm towards the mirror
(2) 36 cm towards the mirror
(3) 36 cm away from the mirror
(4) 30 cm away from the mirror

Answer: (3)

100. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity V=Vi. The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating the magnetic field of the em wave will be along
​
(1) –y direction
(2) –x direction
(3) +z direction
(4) –z direction

Answer: (3)

101. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

(1) 1.389 H
(2) 13.89 H
(3) 138.88 H
(4) 0.138 H

Answer: (2)

102. The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is
(1) 30°
(2) Zero
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

Answer: (3)

103. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the
hydrogen atom, is
(1) 2 : –1
(2) 1 : –2
(3) 1 : –1
(4) 1 : 1

Answer: (3)

104. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v = v₀î(v₀ > 0) enters an electric field E = -E₀î (E₀ = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ₀ is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its deBroglie wavelength at time t is

Answer: (a)

105. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

(1) 30
(2) 15
(3) 10
(4) 20

Answer - (4)

106. When the light of frequency 2v₀ (where v0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5v₀, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 2

Answer - (4)

107. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage V_i is 20V, V_BE = 0 and V_CE = 0. The values of I_B, I_C and β are given by :-

Answer - (4)

108. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating

(1) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(2) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of p-n junction
(3) Affects only forward resistance
(4) Affects only reverse resistance

Answer - (2)

109. In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as :-


Answer - (2)

110. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

(1) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
(2) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
(3) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(4) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

Answer - (3)

111.A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I.
The value of 'n' is

(1) 20
(2) 9
(3) 11
(4) 10

Answer: (4)

112. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?



Answer: (1)

113. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

(1) 6.25%
(2) 12.5%
(3) 20%
(4) 26.8%

Answer: (4)

114. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

(1) 1/3
(2) 2/7
(3) 2/3
(4) 2/5

Answer: (4)

115. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

(1) 12.5 cm
(2) 16 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 13.2 cm

Answer: (4)

116. At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth's atmosphere? (Given: Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10^–26 kg Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10^–23 JK^–1)

(1) 5.016 × 104 K
(2) 1.254 × 104 K
(3) 8.360 × 104 K
(4) 2.508 × 104 K

Answer: (3)

117. The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength 3/4 λ0 the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is

(1) 256/81
(2) 81/256
(3) 4/3
(4) 3/4

Answer: (1)

118. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by Δ/ on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?
(1) 4 F
(2) F
(3) 6 F
(4) 9 F

Answer: (4)

119. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

(1) r5
(2) r4
(3) r2
(4) r3

Answer: (1)

120. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm^-2) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

(1) 42.2 J
(2) 84.5 J
(3) 208.7 J
(4) 104.3 J

Answer: (3)

121) The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are K_A, K_B and K_C, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then B



Answer: (2)

122) A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (K_t) as well as rotational kinetic energy (K_r) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (K_t + K_r) for the sphere is

(1) 10 : 7
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 5 : 7
(4) 7 : 10

Answer: (3)

123) A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?

(1) Rotational kinetic energy
(2) Angular momentum
(3) Moment of inertia
(4) Angular velocity

Answer: (2)

124) If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct?

(1) Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease
(2) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
(3) Walking on the ground would become more difficult
(4) Raindrops will fall faster

Answer: (2)

125) A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

(1) 5/4 D
(2) 3/2 D
(3) 7/5 D
(4) D

Answer: (1)

126) Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

(1) W_B > W_A > W_C
(2) W_A > W_C > W_B
(3) W_A > W_B > W_C
(4) W_C > W_B > W_A

Answer: (4)

127) A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

(1) 0.8
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.5

Answer: (3)

128) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Frictional force opposes the relative motion.
(2) Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.
(3) Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.
(4) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.

Answer: (2)

129)

Answer: (C)

130) A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field E. Due to the force q E , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

(1) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
(2) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
(3) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
(4) 2 m/s, 4 m/s

Answer: (C)

131) A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is :-


Answer: (3)

132) A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25
divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

(1) 0.053 cm
(2) 0.529 cm
(3) 0.525 cm
(4) 0.521 cm

Answer: (2)

133) Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index 'µ'. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?

(1) i= sin^-1 (1/ µ)
(2) i = tan^-1 (1/ µ)
(3) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence
(4) Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

Answer: (3)

134) In Young's double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

(1) 2.1 mm
(2) 1.7 mm
(3) 1.9 mm
(4) 1.8 mm

Answer: (3)

135) An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

(1) Large focal length and large diameter
(2) Small focal length and small diameter
(3) Large focal length and small diameter
(4) Small focal length and large diameter

Answer: (1)

136) In which case is number of molecules of water maximum?

(1) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
(2) 10-3 mol of water
(3) 0.18 g of water
(4) 18 mL of water

Answer: (4)

137) Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below:


Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

(1) Br₂
(2) HBrO
(3) BrO^-₄
(4) BrO^-₃

Answer: (2)

138) Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic character is

(1) BeH₂ < BaH₂ < CaH₂
(2) BaH₂ < BeH₂ < CaH₂
(3) CaH₂ < BeH₂ < BaH₂
(4) BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂

Answer: (4)

139) The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that

(1) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
(2) The rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a secondorder reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations
(3) The half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]0
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations

Answer: (3)

140) The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl₂(en)₂] is

(1) Ionization isomerism
(2) Linkage isomerism
(3) Coordination isomerism
(4) Geometrical isomerism

Answer: (4)

141) Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?

(1) MnO4-
(2) MnO42-
(3) Cr2 O72-
(4) CrO42-

Answer: (2)

142) The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)₄] are

(1) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic
(2) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(4) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic

Answer: (3)

143) Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)₅ is

(1) Trinuclear
(2) Dinuclear
(3) Mononuclear
(4) Tetranuclear

Answer: (3)

144) Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code:
Column I Column II
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
v. 15 BM

a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) iii v i ii
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) iv v ii i

Answer: (4)

145) Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF₆ ^3- ion?

(1) B
(2) In
(3) Al
(4) Ga

Answer: (1)

146) In the structure of ClF₃, the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

Answer: (3)

147) The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

(1) HNO₃, NH₄Cl, NO, N₂
(2) NH₄Cl, N₂, NO, HNO₃
(3) HNO₃, NO, NH₄Cl, N₂
(4) HNO₃, NO, N_2, NH₄Cl

Answer: (4)

148) Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?

(1) All but fluorine show positive oxidation states
(2) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy
(3) All are oxidizing agents
(4) All form monobasic oxyacids

Answer: (4)

149) Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?

(1) Mg
(2) Cu
(3) Zn
(4) Fe

Answer: (1)

150) The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

(1) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
(2) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(4) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

Answer: (2)

151) The electrophile involved in the below reaction is


1) dichloromethyl cation
2) dichlorocarbene (CCl₂)
3) trichloromethyl anion
4) formyl cation

Answer: (2)

152) Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

(1) More extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(2) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(3) Formation of carboxylate ion
(4) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding

Answer: (2)

153) Compound A, C₈H₁₀O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and Y are respectively

Answer: (2)
154. Which of the following molecules represents the order ofhybridisation sp2 , sp2 , sp, sp from left to right atoms?
(1) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(3) CH2 = CH – C Ξ CH
(4) HC Ξ C – C Ξ CH

Answer: (3)

155. Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable?


Answer: (1)

156. Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
(1) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(2) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(3) – NR2 < – OR < – F
(4) – NH2 < – OR < – F

Answer: (4)

157) Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is
incorrect?

(1) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(2) They contain strong covalents bonds in their polymer chains.
(3) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.
(4) They contain covalent bonds between various linear pol

Answer: (2)

158) Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because
(1) In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.
(2) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.
(3) In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.
(4) Inspite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.

Answer: (2)

159) The difference between amylose and amylopectin is

(1) Amylopectin have 1→ 4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkage
(2) Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose
(3) Amylose have 1→ 4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkage
(4) Amylopectin have 1→ 4 α-linkage and 1→6 β- linkage


Answer: (4)

160) A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4.
The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP

(1) 2.8
(2) 4.4
(3) 3.0
(4) 1.4

Answer: (1)

161) Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?
(1) BaO
(2) CaO
(3) BeO
(4) MgO

Answer: (3)

162) For the redox reaction

The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are
(1) 2 16 5
(2) 5 16 2
(3) 2 5 16
(4) 16 5 2

Answer: (3)


164) When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction (

1) Is tripled
(2) Remains unchanged
(3) Is doubled
(4) Is halved

Answer: (3)


165) The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1 .
The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be

(1) 800 kJ mol–1
(2) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 200 kJ mol–1

Answer: (1)

166) The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to
(1) Electric field present between the gas molecules
(2) Forces of attraction between the gas molecules
(3) Volume of the gas mo
lecules (4) Density of the gas molecules

Answer: (2)

167) On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion
depend?
(1) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion
(2) The sign of charge on the ion alone
(3) Size of the ion alone
(4) The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

Answer: (1)

168. On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?
(1) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion
(2) The sign of charge on the ion alone (3) Size of the ion alone (4) The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

CBSE Answer: (1)

169. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?
(1) O2
(2) CO2
(3) H2
(4) NH3

CBSE Answer: (4)

170. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1 )
(1) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L –2
(2) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L –2
(3) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L –2
(4) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L –2

Answer: (4)

171. Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion?

(1) Benzoic acid
(2) Glycine
(3) Acetanilide
(4) Aniline

Answer: (2)

172. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions: The product 'C' is
(1) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
(2) p-bromotoluene
(3) o-bromotoluene
(4) m-bromotoluene

Answer: (4)

173) Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?

(1) N₂O
(2) NO
(3) NO₂
(4) N₂O₅

Answer: (4)

174) The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl₅ gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

(1) C₂H₅Cl, C₂H₆, C₂H₅OH
(2) C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅ONa, C₂H₅Cl
(3) C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅Cl, C₂H₅ONa
(4) C₂H₅OH, C₂H₆, C₂H₅Cl

Answer: (2)

175) Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is

(1) CH₃ – CH₃
(2) CH₄
(3) CH₂ = CH₂
(4) CH ≡ CH

Answer: (2)

176) Consider the following species : CN⁺ , CN^–, NO and CN. Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

(1) CN⁺
(2) CN
(3) CN^–
(4) NO

Answer: (3)

177) Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s² 2s² 2p³, the simplest formula for this compound is

(1) Mg₂X
(2) Mg₃X₂
(3) MgX₂
(4) Mg₂X₃

Answer: (2)

178) Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is


Answer: (1)

179) Which is the incorrect statement?

(1) Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky's defect.
(2) NaCl(s) insulator,silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric crystal.
(3) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and anions are almost equal.
(4) FeO_0.98 has non stoichiometric metal

Answer: (3)

180) The species, having bond angles of 120° is

(1) ClF₃
(2) NCl₃
(3) BCl₃
(4) PH₃

Answer: (3)

1) Which of the following is a sink for CO?
a) Micro organisms present in the soil
b) Oceans
c) Plants
d) Haemoglobin

Answer:- a) Micro organisms present in the soil

2) The element Z=114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and electronic configuration?
a) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p²
b) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p⁴
c) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p⁶
d) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p⁵

Answer:- a) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f¹⁴ 6d¹⁰ 7s² 7p²

3) For a given reaction, H = 35.5 kJ mol^-1 and S = 83.6 JK^-1 mol^-1. The reaction is spontaneous at: (Assume that H and S do not vary with temperature)
a) T > 425 K
b) all temperatures
c) T > 298 K
d) T < 425 K

Answer:- a) T > 425 K

4) Identify A and predict the type of reaction


Answer:-d

5) Which of the following is dependent on temperature?
a) Molarity
b) Mole fraction
c) Weight percentage
d) Molality

Answer:- a) Molarity
Explanation:- Molarity includes volume of solution which can change with change in temperature.

6) With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?
a) Bond angle changes but bond length remains same
b) Both bond angle and bond length change
c) Both bond angles and bond length remains same
d) Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

Answer:- c) Both bond angles and bond length remains same.
Explanation:- There is no change in bond angles and bond lengths in the conformations of ethane. There is only change in dihedral angle.

7) Name the gas that can readily decolourises acidified KMnO₄ solution:
a) SO₂
b) NO₂
c) P₂O₅
d) CO₂

Answer:- a) SO₂
Explanation:- SO₂ is readily decolourises acidified KMnO₄.

8) It is because of inability of ns² electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that
a) Sn²⁺ is oxidising while Pb⁴⁺ is reducing
b) Sn²⁺ and Pb²⁺ are both oxidising and reducing
c) Sn⁴⁺ is reducing while Pb⁴⁺ is oxidising
d) Sn²⁺ is reducing while Pb⁴⁺ is oxidising

Answer:- d) Sn²⁺ is reducing while Pb⁴⁺ is oxidising
Explanation:- Inability of ns² electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding on moving down the group in heavier p-block elements is called inert pair effect.
As a result, Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV)
Sn(IV) is more stable than Sn(II)
-> Pb(IV) is easily reduced to Pb(II)
-> Pb(IV) is oxidising agent
Sn(II) is easily oxidised to Sn(IV)
-> Sn(II) is reducing agent

9) Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X₂ + Y₂ -> 2XY is given below:
i) X₂ -> X + X (fast)
ii) X + Y₂ ⇔ XY + Y (slow)
iii) X + Y -> XY (fast)
The overall order of the reaction will be
a) 2
b) 0
c) 1.5
d) 1

Answer:- c) 1.5

10) The equilibrium constants of the following are
N₂ + 3H₂ ⇔ 2NH₃ K1
N₂ + O₂ ⇔ 2NO K2
H₂ + (1/2)O₂ -> H₂O 2 K3
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction
2NH₃ + (5/2)O₂ ⇔ 2NO + 3H₂O, will be
a) K₂ K₃³ /K₁
b) K₂ K₃ /K₁
c) K₂³ K₃ /K₁
d) K₁ K₃³ /K₂

Answer:- a) K₂ K₃³ /K₁

11) Which one is the wrong statement?
a) The uncertainty principle is E X t h/4pi
b) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange energy, greater symmetry and more balanced arrangement
c) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms
d) De-Broglie's wavelength is given by = h/mv, where m = mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle

Answer:- c)
Explanation:- Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of hydrogen like atoms is equal.

12) Which one of the following statements is not correct?
a) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at equilibrium
b) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions
c) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme
d) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction

Answer:- a)
Explanation:- A catalyst decreases activation energies of both the forward and backward reaction by same amount, therefore, it speeds up both forward and backward reaction by same rate.
Equilibrium constant is therefore not affected by catalyst at a given temperature.

13) HgCl₂ and I₂ both when dissolved in water containing I^– ions the pair of species formed is
a) HgI₂, I^–
b) HgI₄^2-, I₃^–
c) Hg₂I₂, I^–
d) HgI₂, I₃^–

Answer:- b)

14) The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is

a) III < I < II
b) III < II < I
c) II < I < III
d) II < III < I

Answer:- c) II < I < III

15) An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is
a) Grignard's reagent
b) Ferrocene
c) Cobaltocene
d) Ruthenocene

Answer:- a)Grignard's reagent
Explanation:- Grignard's reagent i.e., RMgX is -bonded organometallic compound.

16) A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO₂(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the container, when pressure of CO₂ attains its maximum value, will be
(Given that : SrCO₃(s) ⇔ SrO(s) + CO₂(g).
K_p = 1.6 atm)
a) 10 litre
b) 4 litre
c) 2 litre
d) 5 litre

Answer:- d) 5 litre

17) Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as
a) Antiseptic
b) Antipyretic
c) Antibiotic
d) Analgesic

Answer:- a) Antiseptic

18) Pick out the correct statement with respect [Mn(CN)₆]^3–
a) It is sp³d² hybridised and tetrahedral
b) It is d²sp³ hybridised and octahedral
c) It is dsp² hybridised and square planar
d) It is sp³d² hybridised and octahedral

Answer:- b) It is d²sp³ hybridised and octahedral

19) Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct code

Column I	Column II
(a) XX'	(i) T-shape
(b) XX'3	(ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal
(c) XX'5	(iii) Linear
(d) XX'7	(iv) Square-pyramidal
	(v) Tetrahedral

Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
b) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)
c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer:- a)
Explanation:-- XX' ---> Linear
XX'₃ ----> Example : CIF₃ ----> T-shape
XX'₅ ----> Example : BrF₅ ----> Square pyramida
XX'₇ ----> Example : IF₇ ----> Pentagonal bipyramidal

20) The species, having bond angles of 120° is
a) CIF₃
b) NCl₃
c) BCl₃
d) PH₃

Answer:- c) BCl<sub>3

21) Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction</sub>

Answer:- c)

22) If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (K_f) will be
a) Halved
b) Tripled
c) Unchanged
d) Doubled

Answer:- c) Unchanged
Explanation:- K_f (molal depression constant) is a characteristic of solvent and is independent of molality.

23) The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces
a) Iodobenzene
b) Phenol
c) Benzene
d) Ethyl chlorides

Answer:- b) Phenol

24) In the electrochemical cell
Zn|ZnSO₄(0.01M)||CuSO₄(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E₁. When the concentration of ZnSO₄ is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO₄ changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E₂. From the following, which one is the relationship between E₁ and E₂? (Given, RT/F = 0.059)
a) E₁ < E₂
b) E₁ > E₂
c) E₁ = E₂ E₁
d) E₁ = E₂

Answer:- b) E₁ > E₂

25) A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10^–2 second^–1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?
a) 138.6 second
b) 346.5 second
c) 693.0 second
d) 238.6 second

Answer:- a) 138.6 second

26) Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
a) O₂, NO⁺
b) CN^–, CO
c) N₂, O₂^-
d) CO, NO

Answer:- b) CN^–, CO

27) In which pair of ions both the species contain S – S bond?
a) S₄O₆^2–, S₂O₃^2-
b) S₂O₇^2–, S₂O₈^2–
c) S₄O₆^2–, S₂O₇^2–
d) S₂O₇^2–, S₂O₃^2–

Answer:- a) S₄O₆^2–, S₂O₃^2-

28) Concentration of the Ag⁺ ions in a saturated solution of Ag₂C₂O₄ is 2.2 × 10^–4 mol L^–1. Solubility product of Ag₂C₂O₄ is
a) 2.66 × 10^–12
b) 4.5 × 10^–11
c) 5.3 × 10^–12
d) 2.42 × 10^–8

Answer:- c) 5.3 × 10^–12

29) Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field?
a) K
b) Rb
c) Li
d) Na

Answer:- c) Li

30) A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy deltaU of the gas in joules will be
a) –500 J
b) –505 J
c) +505 J
d) 1136.25 J

Answer:- b) –505 J

31) The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to
a) Actinoid contraction
b) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
c) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
d) The radioactive nature of actinoids

Answer:- b)

32) The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is
a) Chromatography
b) Crystallisation
c) Steam distillation
d) Sublimation

Answer:- c) Steam distillation
Explanation:- Steam distillation is the most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols as there is intramolecular H-bonds in ortho nitrophenol.

33) The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO₃ in excess is treated with the complexes: CoCl₃. 6NH₃. CoCl₃. 5NH₃. CoCl₃.4NH₃ respectively is
a) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl
b) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl
c) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
d) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl

Answer:- b)

34) Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co³⁺ is
a) [Co(H₂O)₆] ³⁺, [Co(en)₃] ³⁺, [Co(NH₃) ₆] ³⁺
b) [Co(H₂O)₆] ³⁺, [Co(NH₃)₆] ³⁺, [Co(en)₃] ³⁺
c) [Co(NH₃)₆] ^3+, [Co(en)₃] ³⁺, [Co(H₂O)₆] ³⁺
d) [Co(en)₃] ³⁺, [Co(NH₃) ₆] ³⁺, [Co(H₂O)₆] ³⁺

Answer:- d)

35) Which one is the most acidic compound?


Answer:- 3)

36) Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?
a) Tel₂, XeF₂
b) IBr₂^- , XeF₂
c) IF₃, XeF₂
d) BeCl₂, XeF₂

Answer:- b)

37) Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine?
a) Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
b) Stephens reaction
c) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis
d) Carbylamine reaction

Answer:- a)

38) Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?

Answer:- a)

39) Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
b) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting
c) Denaturation makes the proteins more active
d) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human body

Answer:- c)

40) Which one is the correct order of acidity?
a) CH CH > CH₃ – C CH > CH₂ = CH₂ > CH₃ – CH₃
b) CH CH > CH₂ = CH₂ > CH₃ – C CH > CH₃ – CH₃
c) CH₃ – CH₃ > CH₂ = CH₂ > CH₃ – C CH > CH CH
d) CH₂ = CH₂ > CH₃ – CH = CH₂ > CH₃ – C CH > CH CH

Answer:- a)

41) Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN^– ion. Silver is later recovered by
a) Distillation
b) Zone refining
c) Displacement with Zn
d) Liquation

Answer:- c)

42) The correct statement regarding electrophile is
a) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile
b) Electrophiles are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
c) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
d) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Answer:- c)

43) Consider the reactions:
Identify A, X, Y and Z
a) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, Z-Semicarbazide
b) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone
c) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z-Hydrazone
d) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetateion, Z-hydrazine

Answer:- b)